Saturday, July 18, 2015


1.     Peripatus is connecting link between
         1) Annelida and Mollusca                               2) Echinodermata and Chordata
         3) Reptiles and birds                                        4) Annelida and Arthropoda
2.     Which of the following organs in man is not vestigial
         1) Auricularis muscles                                     2) Plica semilunaris            
         3) Eustachian tube                                            4) Mammary glands in males
3.     In the embryos of birds and mammals the heart is initially two chambered as in fish, then three chambered as in amphibians and after that an incompletely divided four chambered heart as in reptiles and finally four chambered this is an example for
         1) Germplasm theory   2) Theory of Biogenesis    3) Biogenetic law        4) Homology
4.     Homologous organs have
         1) Dissimilar origin and function                  
         2) Similar structure and origin but similar or dissimilar functions
         3) Dissimilar origin and similar function      4) Dissimilar structure and similar function
5.     shark and whale have the same body form even though they are unrelated because of
         1) Convergent evolution                                  2) Parallel evolution
         3) Divergent evolution                                     4) Macro evolution
6.     Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bird are examples for
         1) Vestigial organs     2) Atavistic organs      3) Homologous organs        4) Analogous organs
7.     The development of the embryos of different organisms differ after the
         1) Blastula stage         2) Gastrula stage         3) Morula stage                    4) Adult stage
8.     Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands explain                                      
         1) Adaptive radiation                                       2) Homoplasy                       3) Parallel evolution          4) Atavism
9.     Whale is closely related to pig than to dolphin. This is proved based on
         1) Biochemical recapitulation                        2) Blood precipitation tests
         3) Vestigial organs                                            4) Connecting links
10.   Which of the following statements is correct
         1) The organs which are functional in the ancestors but non functional and reduced in the descendants are called Atavistic organs.
         2) The organs which appear suddenly in a better developed condition are called vestigial organs
         3) Analogous organs help unrelated animals, to live in the same habitat.
         4) Vestigial organs explain adaptive radiation
11.   The largest known human gene codes for the protein
         1) myoglobin                                                     2) dystrophin                       
         3) tyrosine kinase                                             4) phenylalanine hydraxylase     
12.   DNA finger printing is useful in
         1) Sequencing nucleotide base pairs in DNA molecule
         2) Positive identification of a suspect in a crime
         3) the identification of blood groups in humans
         4) the identification of expressed sequence tags
13.   Transfer of DNA strands from agarose gel plate to the  nylon membrane by  capillary action is called
         1) Denaturation of DNA     2) Blotting          3) Restriction digestion                 4) Sequencing

14.   Which of the following it the closest relative of man
         1) Chimpanzee           2) Baboon                     3) Monkey                             4) Dog
15.   Match the following
         A) Serological tests                                         1) E.M southern
         B) Recapitulation theory                               2) Jeffrys
         C) DNA finger printing                                  3) H.F. Nuttal
         D) Blotting                                                         4) Ernst Haeckel
         1) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3                             2) A – 1, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2
         3) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1                             3) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3
16.   Parallelism is
         1) Adaptive divergence                                    2) Adaptive convergence of closely related groups
         3) Adaptive convergence of widely separated species
         4) Adaptive divergence of widely separated species
17.   Which of the following is not a vestigial organ
         1) Hind limbs in python                                   2) Wings of flightless birds
         3) Flippers of whale                                          4) Mammary glands in male human beings
18.   Presence of tadpole larva in the development of frog indicates the evolution of amphibians from
         1) annelid like ancestor                                   2) Fish like ancestor
          3) Reptile like ancestor                                  4) Urodele like ancestor
19.     Read the following.
          I)    ReptilesMammals                               II)  FishesAmphibians
          III) ReptilesBirds                                       IV) AmphibiansReptiles
          In the above A, B, C and D represent the fossils of transitional forms between different groups.  They are respectively
          1)  Ornythorhynchus, Lepidosiren, Apteryx, Icthyophis
          2)  Cynognathus, Seymouria, Archaeopteryx, Eusthenopteron
          3)  Seymouria, Archaeopteryx, Eusthenopteron, Cynognathus
          4)  Cynognathus, Eusthenopteron, Archaeopteryx and Seymouria
20.     One of the following epoch signifies civilization of human beings.  It is
          1)  Holocene                   2)  Pleistocene               3)  Pliocene                    4)  Miocene
21.     Study the following statements about biochemical recapitulations and identify the correct.
          a) Tadpole of frog excretes urea and recapitulates fish ancestry
          b)  Bird embryo excretes ammonia initially then urea and finally uric acid
          c)  By excreting uric acid mammalian embryo recapitulates reptilian ancestry
          1)  All are correct                                                   2)  Only a and b are correct
          3)  Only b and c are correct                                  4)  Only a and c are correct
22.     Assertion (A) : Fossil coprolites of Jurassic dinosaurs reveal the nature of food and their food habits.
          Reason   (R) : Coprolites are fossilized faecal matter.
          1)  A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
          2)  A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
          3)  A is true, R is false.                                           4)  A is false, R is true.
23.     Indian women bore their earpinnae for wearing jewellery.  This has been in practice for several centuries.  How ever new born girl children are never with readymade perforations in their pinnae.  This disproves ………… of lamark.
          1)  Use principle                                                     2)  Disuse principle
          3)  Inheritance of acquired characters                4)  Influence of environment on the organization
24.     The grasshoppers are generally green.  Appearance of black coloured grasshoppers in one stock indicates.
          1)  Recapitulation          2)  Mutation                   3)  Natural selection     4)  Lamarkism
25.     Match the following and choose the correct answer.
          List-I                                                                        List-II
          A)  Survival of the fittest                                     I)   Weisman
          B)  Principles of Geology                                     II)  Macrovariations
          C)  Sports or Saltations                                       III) Spencer
          D)  Decaudalisation                                              IV) Charles Lyell
                 A               B               C                D                          A               B               C               D
          1)  III               IV             II                I                     2)  IV              III              II                I
          3)  IV              III              I                 II                    4)  III              IV              I                 II
26.     Which one is the most severe check not only on the rate of reproduction but also survival as well.
          1)  Struggle with the environment                        2)  Intraspecific struggle
          3)  Interspecific struggle                                        4)  All the above
27.     Read the following statements about mutation theory.
          I)   Mutations result in origin of full fledged forms without any intermediate stages
          II)  New variations arised by mutations are not subjected to natural selection
          III) In any population the origin of new species by mutation is sudden and discontinuous
          In the above the correct
          1)  All are correct          2)  I and II only              3)  I and III only             4)  II and III only
28.     Study the following and choose the correct combination.
          Theory                               Salient feature                     Example
          A)  Natural selection      Survival of fittest                Biston betularia
          B)  Germplasm theory   Two kinds of protoplasm  Proteus
          C)  Lamarkism                Use principle                        Snakes
          1)  All                              2)  Only A                       3)  Onlyl B                      4)  Only B and C
29.     Changes in the external conditions
          Secretions from somatic cell
          Secretions reach sex cells along with blood
          Inheritatnce of variations
          Offspring with new characters
          The above flow chart is related to the observation made by
          1)  Weismann             2)  Kammarer              3)  Spencer                  4)  Kettlewell
30.    This one tends to “reduce” the amount of genetic variation within the population mainly by removing alleles which have low frequency.
         1. Genetic drift                                                  2. Sexual recombination
         3. Assortative mating                                       4. Centrifugal selection
31.    According to Darwin
         1. Reproductive success will be more for organisms with over specialized organs.
         2. Vestigial organs have selection value.
         3. formation of a new species is due to the cumulative effect of 'fluctuating variations'
          4. Sports of nature play important role in formation of species.
32.    Evolution of new species in a single lineage is called
         1. Cladogenesis                                                 2. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
          3. Adaptive radiation                                                                            4. Phyletic evolution
33.    Study the following about centripetal selection:
         I. It does not promote evolutionary change that leads to speciation.
         II. It maintains phenotypic stability within the population from generation to generation.
         III. It operates in a stable environment.
         The correct ones are
         1. III only                      2. II and III only          3.I and II only               4. All
34.    Both Darwinism and Lamarckism suggests that
         1. Earth is 6000 years old                              2. Species are fixed
         3. Interaction of organisms with surroundings is importantin evolution
         4. Main mechanism of evolution is the inheritance of acquired characters.
35..   Baldness is a sex influenced character. In a small population of 100 individual in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the allelic frequency of B is 0.6. What is the total number of bald males and bald females respectively in that population?
         1. 24 : 18                       2. 42 : 18                     3. 42 : 8                         4. 24 : 8
36.    Study the following:
A. Industrial melanism
Bernard Kettlewell
B. Mutation theory
Hugo de Vries
C. Inheritance of somatic characters
Proteus anguinus
D. Acquired characters are not inherited
August Weismann
         Correct ones of the above are
         1. A, B, C and D                                                2. A, B and D only      
          3. A, B and C only                                           4. A and B only
37.    ‘The external conditions affecting the somatic cells stimulate the body cells to produce specific secretions’ according to
          1. Lamarck                  2. Osborn                     3.R.A. Fisher               4. Darwin
38.    Geographic isolation is not required for the occurrence of
         1. Allopatric speciation and founder effect 2. Allopatric speciation and bottleneck effect
         3. Sympatric speciation and founder effect 4. Sympatric speciation and bottleneck effect

39.    ASSERTION (A): Every acquired character is not transmitted to the offspring.
         REASON ( R): Only those changes that occur in germplasm are heritable.
         1. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation to ‘A’.
         2. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not correct explanation to ‘A’
          3. ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false                          4. ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
40.    If 9% of African population is born with a severe form of sickle cell anaemia (ss), what is the frequency of population, who will be more resistant to malaria?
         1. 0.32                           2. 0.42                          3. 0.7                             4. 0.3
41.    Match the following and choose the correct one
A. Resistance to DDT by mosquitoes
1. Founder effect
B. Polydactylic dwarf individuals in old order
Amish population
2. Genetic load
C. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Disruptive selection
D. Presence of ‘O’ positive blood group near to
100% among Red-indians
4. Bottleneck effect

5. Directional selection
         1. A-5, B-3, C-2, D-4                                        2. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
         3. A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4                                        4. A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
42.    What is the frequency of heterozygotes in a Hardy-Weinberg population in which the frequency of dominant phenotype is 0.64?
         1.0.48                            2.0.16                           3.0.32                            4. 0.52
43. Find out incorrect statement with reference to objections to Darwinism
           1) It did not distinguish between somatic and germinal variations                  
           2) It could not explain organs like large tusks in mammoths and over sized antlers in Irish deer
           3) It focused on small, fluctuating variations which are mostly non heritable
          4) It explains the arrival of the fittest but not the survival of the fittest.                     
44. Match the following and choose the correct answer
            List – I                                                                       List – II
           A) Bateson                                                     I) Saltations
           B) Paul kammarer                                       II) Sir Charles Lyell
           C) Philosophie zoologique                          III) Proteus anguinus
           D) Principles of geology                             IV) Discontinous variations
           E) Darwin                                                       V) Lamarck
      A         B        C       D      E                                 A     B       C        D      E 
1)     I       III      II       V     IV                                      2)    IV     III      II       V      I                       
3)    IV     III      V      II       I  4)     I       III      V      II      IV                          
45. If one species diverges to become two or more species due to geographical barriers it is called 
           1) Cladogenesis and allopatric speciation   2) Anagenesis and allopatric speciation                       
          3) Cladogenesis and sympatric speciation   4) Anagenesis and sympatric speciation                       
46. In a population of 5000 individuals with HW equilibrium, 200 members exhibit a recessive trait. Find out the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles in that population   
           1) 0.96 and 0.04         2) 0.68 and 0.32         3) 0.6 and 0.4              4) 0.8 and 0.2       

47. The existence of deleterious genes within the populations is called
           1) Founder effect       2) Haldane effect       3) Genetic load           4) Bottleneck effect        
48. Assertion (A): Stabilizing natural selection keeps the species unchanged
           Reason(R): Stabilizing selection eliminates individuals from both the ends of phenotypic distribution and preserves only the average phenotype                                                                      
           1) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A                                                      2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
           3) A is true but R is false                                4) A is false but R is true             
49. Find out the incorrect statement regarding mutations                                                                            
           1) They are random and occur in any direction                              
          2) They are discontinuous but get accumulated over generations       
           3) They are subjected to natural selection 
           4) They are full-fledged and so there are no intermediate forms         
50. The type of natural selection that leads to the splitting of a parental population in a species leading to formation of two or more new species is called                                                                  
           1) Germinal selection                                     2) Centripetal selection                            
          3) Directional selection                                   4) Centrifugal selection
51. The following are the statements regarding industrial melanism
      I) This is an experimental verification of artificial selection
     II) Natural selection of darker moths in response to industrial pollution is called as industrial melanism
   III) Dorset is more polluted as compared to Birmingham.
   IV) Reverse evolution of gray moths is due to reduction of pollution in the urban areas.
         Correct pair of statements is                                                                                                                        
          1) I & II                        2) II & IV                     3) II & III                      4) III & IV
52.  The first primate who used sharp stone tools for hunting was
       1. Neanderthals             2. Australopithecus   3. Homo habilis          4. Homo sapiens                                                                                                                                                                                               
53.  Who of the following were first to leave Africa?
       1. Homo ergaster                                               2. Homo habilis
       3. Homo neanderthalensis                                4. Australopithecus
54.  A. Homo erectus          B. Homo sapiens        C. Homo neanderhalensis
       D. Homo habilis           E. Ramapithecus        F. Australopithecus
       Arrange the above based on probable evolutionary sequence
       1. E,F,A,D,C,B               2. F,E,D,A,C,B            3. F,E,A,D,C,B               4. E,F,D,A,C,B
55.  The correct one about Dryopithecus is
       1. The first hominid                                           2. More ape-like
       3. Formed just around 2 million years ago     4. Used stone tools
56.  Correct one regarding number of cones in an eye is
       1. Fovea centralis > macula lutea                    2. Optic disc = macula lutea
          3. Blind spot > yellow spot                            4. Fovea centralis < Uvea
57.  The first human-like being was                    
       1. Homo habilis            2. Australopithecus   3. Homo erectus         4. Homo ergaster
58.  Fossils discovered in Java revealed about
       1. Homo habilis            2. Ramapithecus         3. Cro-magnon man   4. Homo erectus

59.  Study the following:
       I. Cave paintings were done by cro-magnon man.
       II. Australopithecus lived in East African grasslands.
       III. During ice age modern Homo sapiens were arose in Africa and moved first to Asia.
       The correct ones are
       1. III only                       2. II and III only          3. I and II only               4. All
60.  Study the following:
       Related to human evolution
Cranial capacity
A. Homo neanderthalensis
Buried their dead
B. Homo habilis
Ate fruits
C. Homo erectus
Around 900cc
Probably ate meat
       Correct one of the above are
       1. A, B and C                 2. A and B only          3. A and C only             4. B and C only
61.    Which one of the following is related to the first human – like being .
          1) Used hides to protect their body                    2) Ate meat
          3) Hunted with sharp stone tools                        4) Buried their dead
62.    Choose the correct one related to human – like being who lived in East and central Asia between 100,000 to 40,000 ya.
          1) Buried their dead                                              2) First to leave Africa 
          3) Cranial capacity of around 900 cc                 4) Hunted first with sharp stone tools
63.      Match the following
           A) Ichthyosaurus                                            1) Man – like hominid
           B) The first mammals                                    2) The biggest dinosaur
           C) Tyrannosaurus rex                                   3) Shrew like
           D) Ramapithecus                                            4) Fish – like reptile
                                                                                       5) Ape – like hominid
                                                                                       6) Man- like hominoid
                     A              B               C               D                                  A               B              C              D
           1)      2              3                4               5                     2)          4                3               2               1
           3)      4              3                2               5                     4)          4                3               2               6
64.    Cave paintings about 18,000 ya were done by
          1) Cro – Magnon man                                     2) Homo erectus        
          3) Homo neanderthalensis                             4) Homo ergaster
65.     A lineage composed of two or more groups of organisms which includes the common ancestral group and all descendants is called a monophyletic group.  The branching diagram (cladogram) below depicts the relationships of seven species.  Which of the following is not a monophyletic group?
          1) B+C                             2) G+H                            3) B+ C+E                       4) B+C+E+F+G+H
66.     A population can have genotypes CC, Cc and cc for coat-colour.  Which one of the following genotype frequencies follow Hardy-Weinberg rule?
          1) 0.29, 0.42, 0.20                                                   2) 0.25, 0.50, 0.25
          3) 0.36, 0.55, 0.99                                                   4) 0.20, 0.60, 0.20
67.     Theory of Panspermia proposes that:             
          1) Catostrophies create new life forms from time to time
          2) Life and universe were created by divine power
          3) New species are produced from non-living matter spontaneously
          4) Life form reached the earth from other planets accidentally
68.     De Vries theory of mutation:                            
          1) Supports theory of spontaneous generation or abiogenesis .
          2) Does not rule out theory of natural selection proposed by Charles Robert Darwin
          3) Rules out theory of evolution by natural selection
          4) Supports Lamarck’s one of main assumptions of “inheritance of acquired characters” through the non-random mechanism
69.     For a gene with two alleles, if the gene frequency of the recessive gene is 0.2.  What is the genotypic frequency of homozygous dominant?                                    
          1) 0.064                           2) 0.8                               3) 0.64                             4) 0.32
70.     The process of formation of a new species within a population in the same habitat because of some isolation mechanism is called                 
          1) Allopatric speciation                                                                                  2) Parapatric speciation
          3) Sympatric speciation                                                                                  4) H-W equilibrium
71.     Which one of the following is not a pre-required for Hardy – Weinberg
          1) Large size of population                                              2) No change in the rate of mutation
          3) No large – scale migration between populations      4) Nonrandom mating
72.     After synthesizing bacterial chlorophyll from magnesium porphyrin first time the primitive organisms performed this mode of nutrition:                                        
          1) Chemoautrotrophic                                           2) Anoxygenic photoautotrophic
          3) Anaerobic heterotrophic                                  4) Oxygenic, aerobic heterotrophic
73.     Earthworm and snake have the same body form as both live in burrows, it suggests     
          1) Divergent evolution                                          2) Convergent evolution
          3) Disruptive evolution                                                                                  4) Parallel evolution
74.     The primitive organisms that are anaerobic heterotrophs obtained energy by the:
          1) Oxidation of organic and inorganic substances 
          2) Fermentation of some of the organic molecules
          3) Fermentation of some of the inorganic molecules
          4) Reduction of organic and inorganic substances
75.  In a Hardy –Weinberg population 288 individuals show homozygous dominant trait. The frequency of dominant allele is 0.6. How many individuals are there in the population?
       1. 200                             2. 800                           3. 600                           4. 1800
76. Presence of a fish like tadpole larva in the life history of frog supports 
           1) Natural selection theory of Darwin         2) Biogenetic Law     
          3) Abiogenesis                                                 4) Theory of Biogenesis

77. According to chemical evolution the primitive atmosphere was  
           1) Hot with abundant oxygen and absence of hydrogen
           2) Cold with abundant hydrogen and absence of free oxygen
           3) Cold with abundant free oxygen and absence of hydrogen
          4) Hot with abundant hydrogen and absence of free oxygen
78. Identify the correct statement related to biochemical recapitulations                                                 1) Adult frog and its tadpole excrete urea like fishes
           2) The embryo of bird excretes ammonia for the first nine days of development as fishes do, then urea in the next four days as amphibians and finally uric acid as reptiles
          3) Mammalian embryo first excretes ammonia then uric acid and finally urea
          4) Adult frog excrete ammonia and its tadpole larva excrete urea
79. Assertion (A): During biological evolution reducing atmosphere transformed into modern
           oxidising atmosphere after the evolution of oxygenic photo autotrophs.
       Reason (R):   Oxygenic photo autotrophic organisms released large quantity of oxygen into
           the atmosphere.
          1) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
           2) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
          3) A is true, R is false                                                                           4) A is false, R is true      
80.   In a Hardy – Weirberg population of 6,400 guinea pogs 1600 are with brown coat which is a recessive trait. What is the genotypic frequency of dominant individuals in that population ?
         1) 0.25                          2) 0.75                           3) 0.95                                    4) 0.5
81.   Assertion (A):  Reproductive isolation plays an important role in preserving the species integrity.
         Reason (R): It prevents genetic exchange.
         1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
         2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
         3) (A) is true but (R) is false                           4) (A) is false but (R) is true
82.   Choose correct set
         List – I                                                                List – II
         A) Kettle well                                                    I) Natural selection
         B) Kammarer                                                   II) industrial melanism
         C) Hugo devries                                               III) Proteus anguinus
         D) Sewall wright                                              IV) Principles of geology
         E) Charles Lyell                                               V) Neo Darwinism
                                                                                      VI) Mutations
         1) A –II,B–III,C–VI,D–IV,E–I                          2) A –II,B–III,C–VI,D–V,E–IV
         3) A –IV,B–III,C–II,D–I,E–V                           4) A –II,B–III,C–I,D–V,E–IV
83.   Assertion (A): According to Lamarck adaptations are acquired characters due the influence of environmental changes.
         Reason (R):  Acquired characters develop due to hereditary changes in somatoplasm
         1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
         2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
         3) (A) is true but (R) is false                           4) (A) is false but (R) is true

84.   Darwin’s theory could not explain
         1) survival of the fittest                                   2) occurence of vestigeal organs.
         3) role of fluctuating variations in speciation    
         4) role of reproductive success in struggle for existence.
85.   Assume that 100% of the Red Indians are with ‘O’ blood group. If few people with homozygous ‘A’ blood group migrate into that population and if random genetic exchange occurs, the consequence would be
         1) loss of q                  2) fixation of P            3) q value decreases            4) either p or q are lost
86.   According to Hugo Devries there are no ‘intermediate forms’ in evolution due to this reason.
         1) mutations are fullfledged                            2) mutations are selected by nature
         3) mutations accumulate over generations   4) mutations are random changes.
87.   The type of selection which leads to divergent evolution
         1) centripetal selection    2) directional selection    3) anagenesis           4) centrifugal.
88.          Match the following and choose the correct answer
A)Abiogenesis                I)Cuvier
B)Catastrophism          II)Louis Pasteur
C)Biogenesis                  III)Linnaeus
D)Coacervate theory   IV)Von Helmont
            A         B         C         D                                 A         B         C         D
1)        III        II          I           V                     2)        II          III        V         IV
3)        IV        I           II          V                    4)        IV        I           II          III
89. Assertion(A): Lamarckism is considered as the first scientifically explained theory of evolution
Reason(R ): Lamarck was the first person to give importance to the effect of environmental factors on organisms
1)A & R are true R explains A                               2)A&R are true R does not explain A
3)A is true but R is false                                         4)A is false but R is true
90. In a Hardy-Weinberg population of 1000 individuals in a forest the frequency of recessive allele is 0.6. If all the homozygous recessive individuals died in a forest fire, the expected frequency of homozygous recessive individuals in the next generation will be
1)0.140                            2)0.35                               3)0.40                                4)0.60
91. A group of individuals with homologous characters exhibit
1)Divergent evolution                                             2)Convergent  evolution
3)Homoplasy                                                            4)Parallelism
92.      Assertion (A): Natural selection can not cause the formation of new species.
           Reason (R): It does not produce any genetic changes.
         1)  A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
         2)  A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
          3) A is true, R is false.                                     4) A is false, R is true.
93.      Who proposed the idea of  “ survival of fittest”?
           1) The scientist, who stated that the characters acquired may be inherited by progeny
           2) The scientist, who coined the term “ organic evolution”
           3) The scientist, who wrote the book “ origin of species” by natural selection
           4) The scientist, who supported the natural selection through experiment called “industrial melanism”
94.      Which natural selection favours the intermediate phenotype over the extremes?
           1) Centripetal selection                                   2) Directional selection
           3) Artificial selection                                      4) Centrifugal selection
95.      Which one of the following is not a pre-required for Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium?
           1) Large size of population                            2) Absence of mutations
           3) No large – scale migration between population
          4) Nonrandom mating
96. Identify the wrong match with respect to simulation experiment
      1. Primordial atmosphere – gases in spark chamber
      2. Lightening energy – electrodes
      3. Rain and Haldene’s soup – Condenser tube
      4. Lightening energy – boiling flask
97. Identify the correct statements
      I. Mammals were originated earlier to  birds
      II. Amphibians originated in the golden age of fishes
      III. Dinosaurs had become extinct before origin of birds
      IV. Man was civilized in Pleistocene epoch
      1.I & II                              2. I, II, III                    3. III, IV                            4. II, III
98. Assertion (A): Early embryos of fish, salamander, tortoise, chick and man resemble each
       other closely
      Reason(R): Tadpole larva of frog resembles fish
          1) Both A and R are correct.  R is the correct explanation of A.
          2) Both A and R are correct.  R is not the correct explanation of A.     
          3) A is true, but R is false                                   4) A is false, but R is true
99. Identify the wrongly matched pair
       1. Tailed human baby -  Atavism                    2. Darwins finches – adaptive radiation
       3. Body form of shark and whale-divergent evolution
       4. Ammonia excretion by tadpole – biochemical recapitulation
100. The following products  are excreted by an animal during its embryonic development. At first ammonia, later urea and finally uric acid. Identify the animal
       1.Fish                              2. Frog                        3. Mammal                      4. Bird
101.  Theory of biogenesis was confirmed by
       1. A.I Oparin                  2. George Cuvier      3. Louis Pasteur              4. JBS Haldane
102. Identify the correct statement related   to biological evolution
      1. Heterotrophs were evolved earlier to autotrophs
      2. Chemoautotrophs were  evolved after  the evolution of photoautotrophs
      3. True  chlorophyll was evolved earlier to bacterial chlorophyll
          4. Oxygenic photoautotrophs were evolved earlier to anoxygenic photoautotrophs
103.  Assertion (A) The flipper of a whale, the fore limb of horse and the paw of a cat are similar in their organization but differ in function.
          Reason (R) : Homologous organs might be formed in mammals by divergent evolution.
                                                1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
          2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
          3) A is true and R is false                               4) A is false and R is true

104.  One of the following is criticism against Darwinism
          1) Survival of the fittest                                          2) Macro variations are ‘sports of nature’
          3) Prodigality of production                          4) Moderate development of body organs
105.  In a Hardy-Weinberg population of 2000 rabbits (where the given character in determined by two alleles) the recessive allele frequency is 0.3. How many are heterozygous individuals in that population ?
          1) 980                          2) 840                          3) 180                          4) 420
106.  Biogenetic law was proposed by
          1) scientist who coined ‘survival of fittest’                                      2) father of modern embryology
          3) father of embryology                                 4) scientist who wrote ‘origin of species’
107.  Read the following statements regarding the theories of evolution and pick out the correct option.
          I)  According to Lamarck, the characters developed during the life time of an organism are
               called acquired characters and they are passed on to the next generation.
          II) Darwin considered that formation of a new species is due to the cumulative effect of
              ‘fluctuating variations’.
          III) de Vries explained that the mutations are discontinuous and are accumulated over
          IV) When the animals (of a species) of a certain habitat enter into different habitats, they evolve into different forms.  This indicates divergent evolution.
          1) All are true                                                   2) Except II all are true      
          3) Except IV all are true                                 4) Except III all are true
108.  According to modern synthetic theory of evolution, which of the following is not a basic factor involved in the process of organic evolution ?
          1) Reproductive isolation                              2) Gene mutations    
          3) Atavistic organs                                          4) Natural selection

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