Saturday, July 18, 2015

APPLIED BIOLOGY ASSIGNMENT

APPLIED BIOLOGY
1.      One of the following is genetically more close to their parents 
          1) Mule                          2) Outcross                3) Crossbreed              4)Transgenic animal      
2.      The advantage of MOET in animal husbendary
          1) A new trait can be introduced                    2) A clone of 6 – 8 calves can be obtained       
          3) Grading up is possible in a single generation                               
          4) It improves the number of individuals in the heard
3.      Hinny is produced by crossing                    
          1) Jack with mare                                             2) Stallion with Jennet    
          3) Jack with Jennet                                          4) Mare with Stallion
4.  The practice of breeding and raising live stock is called
           1) Dairy science         2)  animal husbandry  3) genetic engineering       4)  agriculture
5.  70% of world’s livestock is living in the following countries
      1) India and China                                            2) China and Pakistan
      3) Netherlands and England                             4) Newzeland and Australia
6.   True about milch breeds of India
      1) Yield higher quality of milk                        2) Yield higher quantity of milk
      3) Very high fertility                                          4) Maximum growth rate
7.   ‘Operation Flood’ was initiated by
      1) NABARD                     2) AMUL                    3) NDDB                              4) Vijaya Milk
8.   Following are the feeds given to layers
      a) Prelayer mash            b) Chick mash          c) Layer mash                    d) Grower mash
      Arrange them in correct order of supply
      1) d b a c                           2) b d c a                     3) b d a c                              4) c b d a
9.   Assertion (A): Dairy industries are mechanized to process and packing of milk
         Reason(R): It reduces the direct contact of products with handlers hence maintains hygiene.    
         1) Both (A) and (R ) are true (R ) is correct explanation for (A)
         2) Both (A) and (R ) are true ( R ) is not correct explanation for (A )
         3) (A) is true (R ) is false                                  4) Both (A) and (R ) are false
10. The correct sequence of states with decreasing order of annual milk production
      1) Haryana > Punjab > UP                                  2) Punjab > UP > Haryana
      3) UP  > Haryana > Punjab                                 4) UP > Punjab > Haryana
11. The following are exotic cow breeds
      1) Jersy                             2. Ayrshire                 3. Holstein –Friesian         4. All of these
12. A group of animals related by descent and similar in most of characters is called
      1. Line                               2) Breed                      3) Race                                             4) Variety
13. Animal breeding does not improve
      1) Disease resistance      2) Fast growth rate    3) Early maturity         4) Life span
14. Follow the below given diagram
     
      In the above A, B and P belongs to same breed. Select the correct combinations of crossings
I.           A x C = Close breedings                            II. D x R = Line breeding           
II.       C x S = Cousin mating                               IV. A x R = Cross breeding
1) I and II only                 2)  II, III and IV only     3) I,II and III only           4) All are correct
15. The ‘tea cup cow’ is
      1) Superior male Bos indicus                             2) Inferior female Bos indicus
      3) Inferior female Bubalus bubalis                   4) Superior female Bubalus bubalis
16.   To evolve a pure line, the following technique is to be followed
         1) Cross breeding         2) Out-crossing         3) Inbreeding                      4) MOET
17. The male parent of ‘Hisardale’ is
          1) Bikaneri                   2) Brown Swiss         3) Murrah                            4) Marino
18. ‘Hisardale’, a new breed of sheep, is develop by following breeding technique
        1) Cross breeding                                               2) Out-crossing
        3) interspecific hybridization                          4) Inbreeding
19. In a female progeny of a milch cow, the high-yield nature is due
        1) Inheritance of genes from female parent only 2) Inheritance of genes from male parent only
         3) Inheritance of genes from both the parents                                        4) Dietary nutrients only
20. Following are the steps involved in MOET
      A. Super ovulation                                              B. Non-surgical removal of embryos
      C. Injuction of FSH                                            D. AI and fertilization
      E. Transfer of embryos to surrogate mother F. Folicular maturation
      1) c, f, a, b, d, e                 2) c, f, a, d, b, e          3) c, a, f, d, b, e                   4) c, f, d, a, b, e
21. Match the following and select the correct answer
              List-I                                                              List-II
A)   NECC                                                              1) Hybrid layers
B)    Central poultry breeding farms                2) Production of frozen semen
C)   IVRI                                                                 3) Marketing of eggs
D)   Salon, Rae Bareli                                          4) Poultry vaccines
1) A3, B4, C1, D2            2) A1, B3, C4, D2      3) A3, B1, C2, D4        4) A3, B1, C4, D2
22. Assertion (A): The hybrids produced in species hybridization are generally sterile
        Reason(R): The gene pool of hybrids are different, not identical to either of parental  gene    pools
         1) Both (A) and (R ) are true (R ) is correct explanation for (A)
         2) Both (A) and (R ) are true ( R ) is not correct explanation for (A )
         3) (A) is true (R ) is false                                  4) Both (A) and (R ) are false
23. Hybrid layers used in Indian poultry industry
      1) Hyline                           2) Vencobb                3) Hubbard                          4) All of the above
24. Match the following and select the correct combination
              List-I                                                              List-II
      A.Viral disease                                                    1.Affecting both poultry birds and man
      B. Bacterial disease                                            2.Brooder’s pneumonia
      C. Fungal disease                                                3. Ranikhet
      D. H5N1                                                                 4. CRD
      1) A4, B3, C2, D1            2) A3, B4, C2, D1      3) A3, B4, C1, D4               4) A1, B4, C2, D3
25. Thrush is a
       1) Viral disease     2) Bacterial disease           3) Fungal disease              4) Protozoan disease
26. Every 100 gr. of egg contains the following percentages of proteins, fats and
       energy respectively
1)     13.3 %;  2.5 %;  109 K cal                            2) 20 % ; 11.5 %;  173 K cal
3)  13.3% ; 11.5 %;  109K Cal                           4) 13.3 %; 11.5 %;  173 K cal
27. Consumption of undercooked chicken meat may causes
      1) Chikungunya               2) Chicken pox          3) Bird flue                          4) All of the above
28. Assertion (A): Egg is a highly nutritious food item for man
       Reason (R): The biological value of egg is 4.5; PER is 96 %
                     1) Both (A) and (R ) are true (R ) is correct explanation for (A)
         2) Both (A) and (R ) are true ( R ) is not correct explanation for (A )
         3) (A) is true (R ) is false                                  4) Both (A) and (R ) are false
29. The position of our country in the egg and chicken meat production in the world respectively
       1) 3rd, 5th                          2) 5th , 3rd                    3) 2nd, 4th                      4) 1st, 3rd
30. Follow the statements
      I. Continued close breeding may causes inbreeding depression
      II. Possible venereal diseases during animal breeding  can be avoided by
          artificial insemination (AI)
III.    MOET is applied for upgrading of a desired commercial character
IV.     Upgrading of a character is possible by a single out cross
The incorrect statements from the above are
           1) I and II                      2) II and III                 3) III and IV                         4) II and IV
31.     Assertion (A) : Apis mellifera is a ‘polymorphic’ insect
           Reason (R)     : In honeybee colony, the “caste differentiation” is developed to perform different types of functions
           1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
           2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
           3) (A) is true but (R) is false                          4) Both (A) and (R) are false
32.     Apis cerena indica is a/an
           1) European honeybee that gives large yields
           2) Asian hive bee that is wild and cannot be domesticated
           3) Asian hive bee that is wild and can be domesticated
           4) European honeybee that is a favorite to apiculture
33.     Read the following features
           A. Robust body          B. Diploid form C. Five year lifespan      D. Short lifespan
           E. Large winged        F. Formed from fertilized egg
           Identify the features suitable for a drone bee
           1) A, D and F              2) A, B and D            3) A, D and E            4) A, C and E
34.     Identify the incorrect statement from the following pertaining to honeybee colony
           1) All ‘haploid’ bees are males                   2) All ‘diploid’ bees are females
           3) All “fertilized eggs” develop into fertile bees
           4) All drones develop from “unfertilized eggs”
35        Match the following and choose the answer
List-I
List-II
A. Pollen brushes
I. Tibiae of legs
B. Pollen baskets
II. Tarsi of legs
C. Abdominal glands
III. Glands in crop
D. Royal jelly
IV. Glands in hypopharynx

V. 2nd-5th abdominal segments
           1) A-I, B-II, C-V and D-IV                            2) A-II, B-I, C-III and D-V
           3) A-I, B-II, C-V and D-III                            4) A-II, B-I, C-V and D-IV
36.     Match the following and choose the correct answer
List – I
List – II
A. Waggle dance
I. Reciprocal communication
B. Propolis
II. Treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
C. Bee venom
III. Male parthenogenesis
D. Arrhenotoky
IV. Treatment of superficial burns

V. Female parthenogenesis
           1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III                                 2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-V
           3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-V                                  4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
37.     Identify the correct statement pertaining to royal jelly given by nurse worker bees for feeding
           1) All the larvae developed from fertilized or unfertilized eggs throughout their life
           2) All the larvae developed from fertilized eggs into workers throughout their life
           3) All the larvae developed from unfertilized eggs into drones throughout their life
           4) All the larvae developed from fertilized eggs up to first 4 days commonly
38.     Identify the correct statement
           1) Honey is rich in fructose but not vitamins
           2) Royal jelly is rich in vitamins but not nutrients
           3) Metathoracic legs are with pollen brushes but not pollen baskets
           4) Waggle dance informs direction and distance of availability of food
39.     The type of mouthparts in worker bee of honeybee colony is
           1) chewing and biting type                           2) chewing and lapping type  
           3) piercing and sucking type                       4) sponging and sucking tye
40.     Queen bee of honeybee colony
           1) mates with drones like worker bees         2) stores the sperms in seminal vesicles
           3) is diploid and lays diploid and haploid eggs
           4) lives as like as drone for about 5 years
41.     Inland fishery deals with the capture of fishes of
           1) freshwater habitat only                            2) marine habitat only
           3) estuarine habitat only                              4) both 1 and 3
42.     Which of the following statement is correct?
           1) Silver carp and silver pomfret are freshwater fishes
           2) Silver carp and grass carp are marine exotic fishes
           3) Sardine and salmon are good sources of omega-3-fatty acid
           4) Bombay duck and Chinese carp are estuarine fishes
43.     Assertion (A) : Ovaprim is a synthetic analogue of gonadotropin
           Reason (R)     : The action of ovaprim is to induce release of spawn
           1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
           2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
           3) (A) is true but (R) is false                          4) .(A) is false but (R) is trues
44.       Isinglass is extracted from dried
           1) swim bladder of shark fish                      2) gall bladder of mackerel fish
           3) gall bladder of Bombay duck fish          4) swim bladder of catfish
45.     Read the following and choose the correct combination
             Hormone                   Nature                         Produced by
           1)Insulin                      Peptide hormone            Beta cells of islets of Langerhans
           2) Insulin                     Protein hormone         Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
           3) Insulin                     Protein hormone         Beta cells of islets of Langerhans           
           4) Insulin                     Peptide hormone            Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
46.     In genetic engineering, the DNA sequences coding ‘A’ and ‘B’ chains of insulin are introduced into
           1) genome of zygote of cow                         2) genome of zygote of pig
           3) plasmids of Escherichia coli                  4) nucleus of Entamoeba coli
47.     Assertion (A) : Vaccine induces “artificially passive acquired immunity”
           Reason (R)     : Antiviral vaccines are developed by attenuating whole agent and antibacterial vaccines are produced by inactivation whole agent methods only
           1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
           2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
           3) (A) is true but (R) is false                                  4) Both (A) and (R) are false
48.     Edward Jenner immunized a boy against smallpox by inoculating him with
           1) less dangerous smallpox virus to humans  2) more dangerous smallpox virus to humans
           3) less dangerous cowpox virus to humans     4) more dangerous cowpox virus to humans
49.     Read the following
           A. Rubella                   B. Tetanus                 C. Diphtheria            D. Bubonic plague
           Identify the toxoid vaccines developed against above diseases
           1) A and B                   2) B and C                 3) A and C                 4) C and D
50.     PCR is used for
           1) amplification of nucleic acid of interest    
           2) isolation of nucleic acid of interest from host cell
           3) increasing the rate of mutations in DNA
           4) reducing the DNA of cancerous cells by enzymes
51.          Biotherapy of cancers involves the usage of
1)biological response  modifiers                 2)monoclonal antibody based biological drugs
3)anti-cancer drugs extracted from living organisms
4)cytokine based anti-cancer drugs
52.          Match the following
LIST-I                              LIST-II
A)Chemotherapy          I) Benign tumor
B)PSA test                       II) Prostate cancer
C)Uterine fibroids        III) Alopecia
D)Pap smear                  IV) Cervical cancer
      V) Breast cancer    
      A            B        C      D                            A       B           C         D     
1)  IV           III       II      V              2)        III        II           I           IV 
3)  II I           II        IV     I               4)        V         IV         III        II   
53.          Tobacco smoke does not contain
1)carbon monoxide   2)benzopyrene          3)dioxin                        4)nitrosamines
54.          Assertion(A): “Guardian angel of cells genome” does not  allow the development  of cancers.
Reason (R):It stops the cell cycle at G1 checkpoint and the cell does not enter into S phase
1)Both A and R are true R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true R is not the correct explanation of A
3)A is true ,R is  false                                    4)A is false, R is true
55.          Cancer of the neck of  uterus in women is caused by
                  1)HBV                   2)HPV                         3)ASV                           4)HAV
56.   Which of the following is not a reason for the production of transgenic animals?
1)study of genetic diseases
2)study of effect of genes on physiology & development
3)understanding the safety of vaccines      4)conservation of biodiversity
57.  Cancers are caused mainly due to
1)hereditary reasons                                      2)malnutrition
3)failure of cell cycle regulation                 4)poor sanitary conditions
58.          Correct statement from the following
1)T-cell progenitors are formed in thymus
2)Secondary stem cells are self renewing cells
3)B-cell progenitors give rise to basophils in bone marrow
4)Embryonic stem cells are immortal cells
59.          A low energy x ray exam to detect breast cancer is
1)PET scan                 2)CAT scan                3)Mammogram            4)Sonography
60.          The method of genetherapy for SCID is
1)Germ-line therapy-ex vivo                       2)Somatic line therapy-in vivo
3) Somatic line therapy ex vivo                  
4)Introduction of functional genes in early embryonic stages in vivo
61.          In gene therapy disease causing genes are, generally, inactivated by using
1)polyplexes              2)lipoplexes               3)oligodeoxynucleosides         4)polynucleotides
62.          Gene therapy is mostly aimed at the treatment of
1)diseases caused by single gene defects  2)infectious diseases like AIDS
3)diseases caused by the defects in multiple genes                       
4)rejections after organ transplantation
63.          Which of the following are methods of introduction of DNA directly into eukaryotic cells in gene therapy without using vectors?
A)Electroporation        B)Transfection   
C)Retroviruses              D)Bacterial transduction
1)A&B                         2)B&C                        3)C&D                          4)A&D
64.          Match the following
LIST-I                              LIST-II
A)  antitrypsin      I)Inter cellular proteins
B) lactalbumin        II)Tumour suppressing proteins
C)Cadherins                   III)Treatment of emphysema
D)pRB protein               IV)Human milk protein
The correct match is
      A            B        C      D                          A         B           C         D
1)  I              IV      II      III             2)        III        IV         I           II
              3) III             II        I     IV              4)          II        III          I           IV
65. Transgenic cow from the following
1)Dolly                        2)Rosie                       3)Jersey                        4)Sahiwal
66. Which of the following is not a property of cancer cells?
1)Metastasis                                                              2)Angiogenesis
3)Anchorage dependence                                       4)Abnormal surface antigens
67.          Identify the correct combination from the following
A)Most of the cancers are of carcinoma type
B)Cancers of connective tissues are called carcinomas
C)Cancers develop usually in continuously dividing tissues
D)Liquid  tumors of bone  marrow are called lymphomas
1)A&B                         2)B&C                        3)A&C                          4)A,B &C
68.Statement (S)    : Indian cow is known as ‘teacup cow’.
          Reason     (R) : Draught breeds yield higher quantity of milk.
          (1)Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is a true explanation of (S).
          (2)Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (S).
          (3)Only (S) is true but not (R).                      (4)Both (S) and (R) are wrong.
69.    Cousin mating can be categorised as
          (1) Close breeding                                           (2)Line breeding
          (3) Outcrossing                                                (4)Crossbreeding
70.    This is a hybrid of Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams
          (1) Bhakarwal             (2) Murrah                  (3)    Hisardale           (4)    Sahiwal
71.    Hinny is a hybrid of
          (1) Jack and Mare                                           (2) Stallion and Mare
          (3) Jack and Jennet                                         (4) Stallion and Jennet
72.    Identify the set of viral diseases in poultry
          (1)Ranikhet disease, Marek’s disease, Fowl cholera
          (2)Fowl cholera, Infectious coryza, Chronic respiratory disease
          (3)Brooder's pneumonia, Aflatoxicosis, Thrush
          (4)Gumboro disease, Marek’s disease, Bird flu
73.    This is used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
          (1) Bee venom            (2) Bee wax                 (3) Bee glue                (4) Bee bread
74.    Substance obtained from dried swim bladders of mostly cat fish, used in clarification of wines is
          (1)   Shagreen             (2)    Isinglass             (3)    Fish guano         (4)    Ovaprim
75.    Statement (S)  :Insulin cannot be administered orally.
          Reason     (R) : Animal insulin causesside effects due to non-selfproteins in them, which act
          as antigens.
          (1)   Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is a true explanation of (S).
          (2)   Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (S).
          (3)   Only (S) is true but not (R).                   (4)    Both (S) and (R) are wrong.
76.    Read the following statements:
          A.     Vaccines induce artificially acquired passive immunity.
          B.     Adjuvants are used to boost the immune response to vaccines.
          C.     Attenuated whole agent vaccines are mostly antiviral.
          D.     Vaccines are not prophylactic.
          Which of the above statements are true?
          (1) B and C                  (2) A and C                 (3) A and D                 (4) B and D
77.    The first successful clinical gene therapy made for treating SCID is an example of
          (1) Ex-vivo somatic line gene therapy         (2) Ex-vivo germ line gene therapy
          (3) In-vivo somatic line gene therapy          (4) In-vivo germ line gene therapy
78.    Which of the following are used for ‘gene silencing’?
          (1) Lipoplexes and polyplexes                      (2) Radioactive labelled probes
          (3) Synthetic oligodeoxy nucleosides          (4) Aluminium adjuvants
79.    α -1 Antitrypsin is used in the treatment of
          (1) Cystic fibrosis                                            (2) Emphysema
          (3) Phenylketonuria                                        (4) Alzheimer’s disease
80.    Statement (S)  :The milk produced by first transgenic cow, Rosie,contained alpha-lactalbumin.
          Reason     (R) : Alpha-lactalbumin is the dominant protein in bovine milk.
          (1) Only (S) is true but not (R).                     (2) Both (S) and (R) are wrong.
          (3) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (S).

          (4) Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) is a true explanation of (S).

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ASTHRA JUNIOR COLLEGE , VIJAYAWADA