Friday, June 7, 2013

PLANT KINGDOM

1.    In mosses meiosis occurs
    (a) during spore formation
    (b) in the zygote
    (c) in the gametangium
    (d) in the gametes
2.    In bryophytes
    (a) both sporophyte and gametophyte are independent
    (b) sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte
    (c) both sporophyte and gametophyte are dependent
    (d) both gametophyte is dependent on sporophyte
3.    Amphibians of the plant kingdom are
    (a) Pteridophytes    (b) Angiosperms
    (c) Gymnosperms    (d) Bryophytes
4.    Archegonium is
    (a) female sex organ
    (b) aggregation of sporophylls
    (c) vegetatively reproducing structure
    (d) male sex organ
5.    Foot, seta and capsule are the parts of
    (a) Gametophyte in bryophytes
    (b) Sporophyte in pteridophytes
    (c) Sporophyte in bryophytes
    (d) Gametophyte in angiosperms
6.    Mosses reproduce vegetatively by
    (a) Spores        (b) Fragmentation
    (c) Secondary protonema (d) (b) and (c)
7.    Plant body is a sporophyte with true root, stem and leaves but not flowers in
    (a) Bryophyta        (b) Gymnosperms
    (c) pteridophyta        (d) Algae
8.    Bryophytes that prevent soil erosion by forming dense mats on the soil are
    (a) Ferns        (b) Kelps
    (c)Horsetails        (d) Mosses
9.    Bryophytes are
    (a) First thallophytes (b) First spermatophytes
    (c) First embryophytes
    (d) First tracheophytes
10.    This product of bryophytes is used as fuel
    (a) Bryokenin        (b) Club moss
    (c) Peat            (d) Horn worts
11.    Irish Moss is
    (a) Chondrus        (b) Bryum
    (c) Funaria        (d) Selaginella
12.    The ‘stem and ‘leaves’ in Funaria are not real because
    (a) They are a part of gametophytic generation
    (b) They lack xylem and phloem
    (c) Both a and b
    (d) Neither of the two
13.    The juvenile stage of the gametophyte of moss is
    (a) Green, filamentous and branched structure called protonema
    (b) A tetraflagellate body
    (c) Dorsoventrally flattened plate like body
    (d) A colourless mass of tubular structures
14.    Sphagnum is also called ‘Peat Moss’ because it
    (a) Occurs in peat   
    (b) Grows in acidic marshes
    (c) Decays to form peat
    (d) Quickness fossilisation
15.    In bryophytes, embryo/sporophyte develops inside
    (a) Antheridium        (b) Aporangium
    (c) Archegonium    (D) Male branch
16.    Bryophytes are amphibians of the platn kingdom because
    (a) They require a layer of water for carrying out sexual reproduction
    (b) They occur in damp places
    (c) They are mostly aquatic
    (d) All the above
17.    Number of peristome teeth in Funaria capsule is                  ( NEET)
    (a) 16 in one whorl    (b) 16 in two whorls
    (c) 32 in two horls    (d) 32 in one whorl
18.    Elater mechanism of spore dispersal is found in
    (a) Riccia        (b) Marchantia
    (c) Funaria        (d) Fern
19.    All bryophytes are
    (a) Strictly homosporous
    (b) Strictly heterosporous
    (c) Strictly monocious
    (d) Strictly dieoecious
20.    Funaria differs from Marchantia in having;
    (a) Gametophyte    (b) Ventral canal cell
    (c) Foot            (d) Protonema
21.    (A) : Bryophytes and tracheophytes have an embryo stage in their life cycle.
    (R) : Embryophytes are terrestrial plants
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
22.    (A) : The bryophytes exist in two phasesgametophyte and sporophyte
    (R) : The sporophyte is nutritionally independent
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
23.    (A) : Bryophytes lack non-motile mitospores
    (R) : Fragmentation is a means of vegetative reproduction in bryophytes.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
24.    (A) :  In marchantia, elaters are directly formed from the sporogenous cells.
    (R) : Elaters are haploid
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
25    (A) : Upper surface of Marchantia thallus shows formation of gemma cups.
    (R) : One gemma cup contains one gemma.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
26.    (A) : Sphagnum is called peat moss.
    (R) : It is the major compinent of peat.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
27.    (A) : Sphagnum is used for dressing wounds.
    (R) : Sphagnum cannot absorb water.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
28.    (A): Members of class Hepaticopsida are called as Hornworts
    (R) : Riccia, Marchantia are important hornworts
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
29.    (A) : Bryophytes are not aquatic
    (R) : Bryophytes show heteromorphic alternation of generations in their life cycle.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
30.    (A) : Sphagnum is the most economically important Bryophyte
    (R) : Sphagnum helps in flood control, as packing meterial and maintains acidity.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong
31.    (A) : Some Bryophytes possess elaters in their sporophyte
    (R) : Elaters have hygroscopic spiral thickenings which help in spore dispersal
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (d) Both (A) are (R) wrong


KEY
    1)a    2)b    3)d    4)a    5)c    6)d
    7)c    8)d    9)c    10)c    11)a    12)c
    13)a    14)c    15)c    16)a    17)c    18)b
    19)b    20)d    21)b    22)c    23)b    24)c
    25)c    26)a    27)c    28)d    29)b    30)a
    31)a

THE LIVING WORLD

  LEVEL-I
1.    The term New systematics was coined by
    (a)Lamarck    (b)    Linnaeus
    (c)Huxley    (d)    Hutchinson
2.    Phenetic classification refers to
    (a)Cytotaxonomy
    (b)Biochemical systematics
    (c)Taxonomy
    (d)Numerical taxonomy
3.    Most recent branch of taxonomy is
    (a)Experimental taxonomy
    (b)Biochemical taxonomy
    (c)Numerical taxonomy
    (d)Classical systematics
4.    Bionomial nomenclature was given by
    (a)Linnaeus
    (b)Pliny
    (c)Harvey
    (d)Bentham and Hooker
5.    In the hierarchial classification, the number of obligate categories is
    (a)7    (b)    8
    (c)6    (d)    12
6.    The fundamental taxonomic category or basic unit of classification is
    (a)Genus    (b)    Species
    (c)Sub-species    (d)    Variety
7.    The word ending with - aceae indicates
    (a)Genera    (b)    Family
    (c)Order    (d)    Class
8.    The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is
    (a)Division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species
    (b)Division-class-tribe-order-family-genus-species
    (c)Division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species
    (d)Division-order-class-tribe-family-genus-species
9.    Taxon is
    (a)Any type of taxonomic grouping
    (b)A rank in hierarchial classification
    (c)A constituent of taxonomic hierarchy
    (d)Category
10.    Artificial system of plant classification was first proposed by
    (a)Engler and Prantl    (b)    Theophrastus
    (c)de Candolle   
    (d)Bentham and Hooker
11.    Artificial system of classification is based on
    (a)One character only   
    (b)One or two characters
    (c)Several characters
    (d)Artificial characters
12.    The Linnaen system of classification contains
    (a)4 classes of plants    
    (b)8 classes of plants
    (c)16 classes of plants
    (d)24 classes of plants
13.    Classification based on several characters is
    (a)Natural    (b)    Artificial
    (c)Classical    (d)    Phylogenetic
14.    The phylogenetic system refers to
    (a)The grouping according to all morphological characters
    (b)The grouping of plants in order of their increasing complexities
    (c)The grouping of organisms according to evolutionary trends
    (d)The grouping of plants according to floral similarities
15.    Species Plantarum and Systema Naturae were written by
    (a)Engler    (b)    Linnaeus
    (c)Hooker    (d)    Wallace
16    The first herbarium was set up by
    (a)Linnaeus    (b)    Theophrastus
    (c)Luca Ghini    (d)    None of these
17.    The first complete flora of the British India was compiled by
    (a)J.D. Hooker
    (b)J. K. Maheshwari
    (c)H. H. Hains
    (d)D. Prain
18    National Botanical Research Institute is situated at
    (a)DehraDun    (b)    Lucknow
    (c)Simla    (d)    Kolkata
19.    The most famous Indian taxonomist is regarded to
    (a)H. Collet
    (b)Santapau
    (c)P. Maheshwari
    (d)M. B. Raizada
20.    The Central National Herbarium is located at
    (a)Mumbai    (b)    Chennai
    (c)Kolkata    (d)    Delhi
21.    Taxonomic keys are based on the
    (a)Morphological characters
    (b)Reproductive characters
    (c)Anatomical characters
    (d)Contrasting characters
22.    A taxonomic system based on all phenotypic similarities, equally weighted and without regard to evolutionary relationship is called
    (a)Phylogeny
    (b)Cladistics
    (c)Classical evolutionary taxonomy
    (d)Phenetics
HOME ASSIGNMENT
Choose the appropriate answer:
23.    Systematics is the study of
    (a)Diversity amongst groups of organisms
    (b)Grouping of organisms
    (c)Identification and grouping of organisms
    (d)Identifications, classification and taxonomy
24.    The cultivated plants are named according to
    (a)ICBN    (b)    ICZN
    (c)ICNCP     (d)    ICVN
25.    Plants were given the names in Latin because
    (a)Latin is a simple language
    (b)Scientist wanted to impress people with Latin words
    (c)Latin was the common language
    (d)None of these
26    The intermediate between genus and sub-family is known as
    (a)Tribe    (b)    Taxon
    (c)Sub-genus    (d)    None of these
27.    More number of common characters are observed in members of a
    (a)Family    (b)    Species
    (c)Genus    (d)    Kingdom
28    Which of the following taxonomic categories contains organisms least similar to one another?
    (a)Genera    (b)    Family
    (c)Class    (d)    Species
29.    Which of the following do not recognise a subspecies category?
    (a)Zoologists   
    (b)Botanists
    (c)Anthropologists
    (d)Microbiologists
30    Taxon and category differ in
    (a)Taxon is recognised and assigned while category is abstract
    (b)Taxon is a group of real organisms while category is a rank or level in a hierarchy
    (c)Both (a) and (b)
    (d)None of these
31.    Organisms that can freely interbreed and produce fertile offspring and have similar coded information or blue print for making these organisms is called
    (a)Species    (b)    Sub-species
    (c)Genus    (d)    Sub-genus
32.    Similar genera are grouped into a family, similar families into an order, similar orders into a class, similar classes into a phylum, finally similar phyla are placed in a kingdom. Such a classification is called
    (a)Biological classification
    (b)Taxonomy
    (c)Hierarchial classification
    (d)None of these
33.    Hutchinson’s system of classification is a type of
    (a)Artificial system
    (b)Phylogenetic system
    (c)Natural system
    (d)Modern system
34.    Which is described and not listed?
    (a)Vegetation    (b)    Flora
    (c)Fauna    (d)    Biome
                  LEVEL-II
35.    The first modern botanical garden was
    (a)Royal Botanical Garden, Kew, England
    (b)Indian Botanical Garden, Howrah, Kolkata
    (c)Padua Botanical Garden, Italy
    (d)Lloyd Botanical Garden, Darjeeling
36.    The largest herbarium of the World is located at
    (a)New York    (b)    Italy
    (c)Green    (d)    Kew
37.    The foundation of Indian Botanical Garden, Kolkata was laid in the year
    (a)1787    (b)    1797
    (c)1807    (d)    1757
38.    The head office of Botanical Survey of India is located at
    (a)Darjeeling    (b)    Pune
    (c)Lucknow    (d)    Kolkata
39.    The forest Research Institute is located at
    (a)Jammu
    (b)Dehra Dun
    (c)Combaitore   
    (d)Lucknow
40.    Indian Botanical Garden, Kolkata was established by
    (a)Robert Kyd   
    (b)Bentham and Hooker
    (c)William Aiton
    (d)Roxburgh
41.    Flora of Delhi was complied by
    (a)P. Maheshwari
    (b)J. K. Maheshwari
    (c)T. Cook   
    (d)H. Collet
42.    The museum is prepared to preserve plants
    (a)Which can not be kept in the herbaria
    (b)    Which can also be kept in the herbaria
    (c)Both (a) and (b)
    (d)Which are microscopic
43    Delhi zoo was established in
    (a)1859    (b)    1949
    (c)1959    (d)    1969
44.    How many zoological parks occurs in India?
    (a)Over 400    (b)    Over 300
    (c)Over 200    (d)    Over 500
45.    Where was the first zoological museum was started in India?
    (a)Delhi    (b)    Kolkata
    (c)Chenai    (d)    Mumbai
46.    Which of the following give comprehensive account of complete compilation of available information of any family or genus at a given time?
    (a)Manuals    (b)    Monographs
    (c)Publications    (d)    All of these


ASSERTION AND REASON
In the following questions (01 to 05), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason(R)
1)    If both Assertion & Reason are tue and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark(a)
2.    If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b)
3.    If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)
4.    If both Assertion and Reason are false statement, then mark (d)
47.    A:    The science of classifying organisms is called taxonomy.
    R:Systematics and taxonomy have one meaning.
48.    A:    Names of organisms are generally given in Latin.
    R:Latin language has names of all organism.
49.    A:    Related organisms get separated into different groups in natural systems.
    R:A natural system used artificial keys for quicker identification of an organism.
50    A:    Kingdom is the highest taxonomic category.
    R:Highest taxonomic category shows maximum system.
51.    A:    Artificial system is used for quicker identification of organisms.
    R:Organisms show a clear cut evolutionary line in such a system.

Answers (The Living World)
LEVEL - 1
    1.(c)    2.(d)    3.(a)    4.(a)    5.(a)
    6.(b)    7.(b)    8.(c)    9.(a)    10.(b)
    11.(b)    12.(d)    13.(a)    14.(c)    15.(b)
    16.(c)    17.(a)    18.(b)    19.(b)    20.(c)          21.(d)    22.(d)
LEVEL - II
    23.(a)    24.(c)    25.(d)    26.(a)    27(b)
    28.(c)    29.(b)    30.(c)    31.(a)    32.(c)
    33.(b)    34.(a)    35.(c)    36.(d)    37.(a)
    38.(d)    39.(b)    40.(a)    41.(b)    42.(a)
    43.(c)    44.(b)    45.(b)    46.(b)   
reason & Assertion 
    47.(d)    48.(c)    49.(d)    50.(a)    51.(c)

BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION QUESTION BANK FOR NEET-2014

1.    Blue green algae belong to the kingdom
    (a)    Protista    (b)    Fungi
    (c)    Monera    (d)    Plantae
2.    Ecologically, multicellular, decomposers are
    (a)    Fungi    (b)    Saprotrophic plants
    (c)    Saprotrophic animals    (d)Monerans
3.    According to Whittaker, one of the following is most primitive evolutionary group
    (a)    Plantae    (b)    Fungi
    (c)    Protista    (d)    Monera
4.    Father of bacteriology is
    (a)    de Bary    (b)    Lister
    (c)    Pasteur    (d)    Koch
5.    The smallest bacterium is
    (a)    Dialister pneumonsintes
    (b)    Spirillum volutans
    (c)    Beggiatoa mirabilis
    (d)    Epulopscium fishelsoni
6.    Some bacteria have a capsule outside cell wall.  It is made of
    (a)    Protein   
    (b)    Cellulose
    (c)    Fat
    (d)    Mucopolysaccharide
7.    Bacteria having a tuft of flagella at both ends are called
    (a)    Peritrichous   
    (b)    Lophotrichous
    (c)    Amphitrichous
    (d)    Atrichous
8.    The bacterial genome is called
    (a)    Incipient nucleus    (b)    Genophore
    (c)    Nucleoid    (d)    All of these
9.    Pasteurization is performed at
    (a)    100°C for 15 minutes
    (b)    82°C for 30 minutes
    (c)    72°C for 20 minutes
    (d)    62° for 30 minutes
10.    Milk is spoiled/fermented by
    (a)    Rhizobium    (b)    Lactobacillus
    (c)    Azotobacter    (d)    Clostridium
11.    Biogas is produced by
    (a)    Eubacteria    (b)    Archaebacteria
    (c)    Mycoplasma    (d)    Cyanobacteria
12.    An obligate anaerobe is
    (a)    Ulothrix    (b)    Spirogyra
    (c)    Methane bacteria    (d)    Chlamydomonas
13.    The term ‘Protista’ was proposed by
    (a)    Copeland    (b)    E. Haeckel
    (c)    Whittaker    (d)    None of these
14.    In protists the locomotory organelles are
    (a)    Flagella
    (b)    Flagella, cilia and pseudopodia
    (c)    Flagella and cilia
    (d)    Flagella, cilia, pseudopodia and wrigglers
15.    The photosynthetic protists are
    (a)    Diatoms, euglenoids and slime moulds
    (b)    Sarcodines, dinoflagellates and diatoms
    (c)    Euglenoids, diatoms and dinoflagellates
    (d)    Ciliates, zooflagellates and dinoflagellates
16.    In dinoflagellates, the two flagella are
    (a)    Anterior
    (b)    Lateral
    (c)    Posterior
    (d)    One transverse and the other vertical
17.    Sea water glows during night due to occurrence  of
    (a)    Gonyaulax
    (b)    Noctiluca
    (c)    Euglena    (d)    Gymnodinium
18.    Food reserve of Diatoms is
    (a)    Starch    (b)    Chrysolaminarin
    (c)    Paramylon    (d)    Glycogen
19.    Reserve food in Euglena is
    (a)    Paramylum    (b)    Floridean starch
    (c)    Glycogen    (d)    Mannitol
20.    Myxotrophic nutrition occurs in
    (a)    Paramecium    (b)    Euglena
    (c)    Plasmodium    (d)    Amoeba
21.    Which of the following is a cellular slime mould?
    (a)    Dictyostelium    (b)    Fuligo
    (c)    Dictydium    (d)    Lycogala
22.    Decomposer protists are
    (a)    Sarcodines    (b)    Dinoflagellates
    (c)    Slime moulds    (d)    Diatoms
23.    Father of modern mycology and plant pathology is regarded to
    (a)    E. J. Butler    (b)    H. A. de Bary
    (c)    Alexopolous    (d)    None of these
24.    Fungi differ from algae in being mostly
    (a)    Heterotrophic    (b)    Autotrophic
    (c)    Parasitic    (d)    Epiphytic
25.    Mycelium of Albugo is
    (a)    Intracellular    (b)    Intercellular
    (c)    Surface of host    (d)    Surface of flower
26.    Heterothallism was first discovered by
    (a)    Blakslee    (b)    K.C.Mehta
    (c)    Pasteur    (d)    Alexopolous
27.    Common form of food stored in fungal cells is
    (a)    Starch    (b)    Sucrose
    (c)    Glucose     (d)    Glycogen
28.    Zygospores are produced in
    (a)    Mucor    (b)    Penicillium
    (c)    Puccinia    (d)    Alternaria
29.    Penicillium is commonly known as
    (a)    Black mould     (b)    Blue green mould
    (c)    Pin mould    (d)    None of these
30.    Fungi imperfecti (deuteromycetes) lack
    (a)    Spores   
    (b)    Sexual reproduction
    (c)    Asexual reproduction
    (d)    Hyphae
31.    An edible fungus is
    (a)    Aspergillus    (b)    Polyporus
    (c)    Ustilago    (d)    Morchella
32.    To which Kingdom do liverworts and mosses belong?
    (a)    Plantae    (b)    Protista
    (c)    Monera    (d)    None of these
33.    Which of the following lack tissues?
    (a)    Bryophytes    (b)    Algae
    (c)    Pteridophytes    (d)    Gymnosperms
34.    Vascular system is absent in
    (a)    Algae    (b)    Bryophytes
    (c)    Both (a) and (b)    (d)    Pteridophytes
35.    Ingestive type of nutrition is present in
    (a)    Animals    (b)    Plants
    (c)    Fungi    (d)    Monera
36.    Evernia, a lichen is used for
    (a)    Raising dough    (b)    Retting
    (c)    Making Dhoop    (d)    None of these
37.    Which of the following are archaebacteria?
    (a)    Green sulphur    (b)    Methanogens
    (c)    Pseudomonas    (d)    Chlamydias
38.    The bacteria (Clostridium botulinum) that cause botulism are
    (a)    Obligate aerobes   
    (b)    Facultative anaerobes
    (c)    Obligate anaerobes
    (d)    Facultative aerobes
39.    The bacteria (Treponema pallidum) that cause the veneral disease syphilis are
    (a)    Pseudomonads 
    (b)Purple nonsulphur bacteria
    (c)    Rickettsias   
    (d)    Spirochetes
40.    MAB stands for
    (a)    Man and biosphere   
    (b)    Mammal & biosphere
    (c)    Man and biology   
    (d)    Mammal & biology
41.    Which of the following reduces soil fertility?
    (a)    Nitrosomonas   
    (b)    Nitrobacter
    (c)    Bacillus denitrificans
    (d)    Azotobacter
42.    In bacteria the respiratory organelle is
    (a)    Mitochondria    (b)    Dictyosomes
    (c)    Mesosome    (d)    Vacuole
43.    The filamentous bacteria are represented by
    (a)    Bacilli    (b)    Actinomycetes
    (c)    Spirilli    (d)    Cocci
44.    A compound produced by one living organism and inhibits the growth of another organism is called
    (a)    Antiseptic    (b)    Antibiotic
    (c)    Antiallergic    (d)    Antibiosis

45.    The gram positive bacteria in their cell wall have
    (a)    80% murein    (b)    60% proteins
    (c)    Lipids and proteins    (d)    Cellulose only
LEVEL-II
46.    Bacteria were regarded to be plants because
    (a)    Some of them are green
    (b)    They are present every where
    (c)    Some of them cannot move
    (d)    They have a rigid cell wall
47.    If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in two hours?
    (a)    4        (b)16
    (c)    8        (d)64
48.    A peculiar amino acid present in bacterial cell wall is
    (a)    Glutamate        (b)Alanine
    (c)    Diaminopimelic acid    (d)Aspartate
49.    Bacteria and other monerans do not posses
    (a)    Ribosomes        (b)Mitochondria
    (c)    Plasma membrane            (d)Nucleoid
50.    In bacteria the site for respiratory activity is found in
    (a)    Episome        (b)Microsome
    (c)    Ribosome        (d)Cell membrane
51.    Genophore or nucleoid is made up of
    (a)    Histones
    (b)    RNA and non histones
    (c)    A single double stranded DNA
    (d)    A single stranded DNA
52.    In bacteria, sex is determined by presence of
    (a)    Pili    (b)    Episome
    (c)    Mesosome    (d)    Flagella
53.    Which of the following is not a bacterial action?
    (a)    Nitrogen fixation
    (b)    Emulsification of fat
    (c)    Sewage disposal
    (d)    None of these
54.    Of the following processes the one carried out only by bacteria is
    (a)    Maturing of cheese
    (b)    Synthesis of antibiotics
    (c)    Formation of humus
    (d)    Synthesis of vitamin K in the intestine
55.    Terramycin is obtained from
    (a)    Streptomyces ramosus
    (b)    Streptomyces griseus
    (c)    Streptomyces venezuelae
    (d)    Streptomyces aurefaciens
56.    The fixation of free nitrogen is done by bacteria
    (a)    Azotobacter   
    (b)    Rhizobium
    (c)    Bacillus subtilis
    (d)    Both (a) and (b)
57.    Among the following which one is recently discovered non legume nitrogen fixing bacterium?
    (a)    Azotobacter    (b)    Rhizobium
    (c)    Nitrosomonas    (d)    Spirillum
58.    Acetobacter aerogens can degrade
    (a)    Petroleum wastes    (b)    2, 4-D
    (c)    DDT    (d)    Antibiotics
59.    A number of organic compounds can be decomposed by
    (a)    Pseudomonas    (b)    Mycoplasma
    (c)    Chemolithotrophs    (d)    Azotobacter
60.    Nitrogen fixing aerobic, photosynthetic and Gram (–) bacteria are
    (a)    Archaebacteria    (b)    Cyanobacteria
    (c)    Chlorobacteria    (d)    Rickettsiae
61.    Blue colour of blue green algae is due to
    (a)    Phycocyanin and allophycocyanin
    (b)    Phycoerythrin
    (c)    Anthocyanin    (d)    Fucoxanthin
62.    Chromoplasm refers to
    (a)    Cytoplasm rich in chloroplasts
    (b)    Cytoplasm having photosynthetic pigments
    (c)    Peripheral thylakoid rich part of cyanobacteria
    (d)    Inner thylakoid rich part of cyanobacterial cell
63.    Common mode of multiplication in cyanobacteria is by
    (a)    Heterocyst    (b)    Exospore
    (c)    Hormogone    (d)    Trichome
64.    Red sea is named after the abundant occurrence of
    (a)    Trichodesmium erythraeum
    (b)    Chlamydomonas nivalis
    (c)    Gonyaulax species
    (d)    Rhodymenia
65.    Most common nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium of paddy fields is
    (a)    Cylindrospermum    (b)    Aulosira
    (c)    Oscillatoria    (d)    Nostoc
66.    Sexual reproduction does not occur in
    (a)    Nostoc    (b)    Riccia
    (c)    Ulothrix    (d)    Rhizopus
67.    A protein rich organism is
    (a)    Spirulina    (b)    Chlamydomonas
    (c)    Ulothrix    (d)    Oedogonium
68.    A free living as well as symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote is
    (a)    Spirulina   
    (b)    Anabaena
    (c)    Oedogonium
    (d)    Cladophora
69.    The group of bacteria devoid of peptidoglycan in its wall is
    (a)    Archaebacteria    (b)    Cyanobacteria
    (c)    Eubacteria    (d)    Nostocales
70.    For production of methane, methanogens
    (a)    Oxidize CO2    (b)    Reduce CO2
    (c)    Reduce alcohol    (d)    Oxidize alcohol
71.    Cell membranes contain branched chain lipids in
    (a)    Actinomycetes    (b)    Spirochaete
    (c)    Eubacteria    (d)    Archaebacteria
72.    Cellulose present in the food of grazing animals, is
    (a)    Digested by intestinal bacteria
    (b)    Digested by animal itself
    (c)    Digested partly by the animal and partly by bacteria
    (d)    Passed out undigested
73.    Prokaryotes that can trap solar energy for ATP synthesis but not for photosynthesis are
    (a)    Methanogens    (b)    Thermoacidophiles
    (c)    Halophiles    (d)    Cyanochloronta
74.    Carotenoids present in cell membranes of halophiles provides
    (a)    A mechanism of facultative photosynthesis
    (b)    Protection against intense radiations
    (c)    Photoperception
    (d)    A mechanism of ATP synthesis
75.    Red oceanic tides can be due to
    (a)    Diatoms    (b)    Dinophyceae
    (c)    Red algae    (d)    Blue green algae
76.    The organisms showing characters intermediate between prokaryotes and eukaryotes are
    (a)    Diatoms    (b)    Cyanobacteria
    (c)    Dinoflagellates    (d)    Archaebacteria
77.    Diatoms lack flagella and float in water due to the presence of
    (a)    Lipids stored in them as food reserve
    (b)    Air sacs formed inside the cell
    (c)    Silica in the cell wall
    (d)    None of these
78.    A protistan that is commonly called plant animal is
    (a)    Navicula    (b)    Noctiluca
    (c)    Vorticella    (d)    Euglena
79.    The flagellum in Euglena is made up of
    (a)    Desmosomes   
    (b)    Microtubules
    (c)    Microfilaments
    (d)    Spindic fibres
80.    Cellular slime moulds are believed to be
    (a)    Advanced protists    (b)    Primitive fungi
    (c)    Both (a) and (b)    (d)    Neither (a) nor (b)
81.    The fructification in cellular slime moulds is known as
    (a)    Sporophore    (b)    Sporocarp
    (c)    Peridium    (d)    Plasmodium
82.    Pseudoplasmodum is
    (a)    A multinucleate structure formed by union of cellular slime moulds
    (b)    False foot of Amoeba
    (c)    Pseudopodia of Plasmodium
    (d)    None of these
83.    Which of these are called communal slime moulds
    (a)    Acellular slime moulds
    (b)    Cellular slime moulds
    (c)    Both (a) and (b)
    (d)    Neither (a) nor (b)
84.    On germination, each spore of cellular slime moulds gives out
    (a)    Promycelium    (b)    Germ tube
    (c)    Myxamoeba    (d)    Zygosporangium
85.    All heterotrophs require an environment that can provide
    (a)    Nitrates in solution   
    (b)    Organic compounds
    (c)    Ammonium salt
    (d)    Vitamin A
86.    The hyphae of Aspergillus are
    (a)    Aseptate and multinucleate
    (b)    Septate and multinucleate
    (c)    Aseptate and uninucleate
    (d)    Septate and uninucleate
87.    When thallus of fungus entirely converts to reproductive body, it called as
    (a)    Eucarpic    (b)    Holocarpic
    (c)    Holozoic    (d)    Homothallic
88.    Fungal spores produced asexually at the tip of hyphae are called
    (a)    Sporangiospores    (b)    Arthrospores
    (c)    Conidia    (d)    Spores
89.    Conidia of Penicillium are arranged
    (a)    Irregularly    (b)    Acropetally
    (c)    Basipetally    (d)    Intercalary
90.    In yeast during budding which of the following processes occurs?
    (a)    Synapsis
    (b)    Unequal division of cytoplasm
    (c)    Doubling of chromosomes
    (d)    Spindle formation
91.    A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from different genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but divide independently and simultaneously as new cells are formed. It belongs to
    (a)    Phycomycetes    (b)    Zygomycetes
    (c)    Deuteromycetes    (d)    Basidiomycetes
92.    Dikaryon formation is characteristic of
    (a)    Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
    (b)    Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
    (c)    Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes
    (d)    Phycomycetes and Zygomycetes
93.    Irish famine is related to a disease of potato called
    (a)    Late blight of potato
    (b)    Early blight of potato
    (c)    Dry rot of potato
    (d)    Wart of potato
94.    Which one secretes hormones for the function?
    (a)    Rhizopus for formation of zygospore
    (b)    All fungi for sexual reproduction
    (c)    Yeast for mating
    (d)    Plants for growth and development
95.    Yeast produces an enzyme complex that is responsible for fermentation. The enzyme complex is
    (a)    Aldolase    (b)    Dehydrogenase
    (c)    Invertase    (d)    Zymase
96.    The reserve food material in the members of Kingdom plantae is mostly
    (a)    Starch    (b)    Fat
    (c)    Glycogen    (d)    None of these
97.    An embryo stage is absent in
    (a)    Mosses    (b)    Ferns
    (c)    Algae    (d)    None of these
98.    The Kingdom Animalia comprises the animals, except
    (a)    Sponges    (b)    Protozoans
    (c)    Both (a) and (b)    (d)    None of these
99.    Reindeer’s moss is
    (a)    Cladonia    (b)    Marchantia
    (c)    Funaria    (d)    Selaginella
100.    Litmus is obtained from
    (a)    Rocella    (b)    Cladonia
    (c)    Usnea    (d)    Letharia
101.    A plemorphic bacterium is
    (a)    Acetobacter    (b)    Bacillus
    (c)    Rhizobacter    (d)    Azotobacter
102.    Photosynthetic monerans are
    (a)    Eubacteria    (b)    Rickettsias
    (c)    Myxobacteria    (d)    Halophiles
103.    Little leaf of Brinjal is caused by
    (a)    Bacteria    (b)    Mycoplasma
    (c)    Actinomycetes    (d)    Cyanobacteria
104.    Mycoplasma differ from viruses in being sensitive to
    (a)    Penicillin    (b)    Tetracyclines
    (c)    Both (a) and (b)    (d)    Sugars
105.    Blue-green alga responsible for red colour of red sea is
    (a)    Nostoc    (b)    Trichodesmium
    (c)    Cephareuros    (d)    Anabaena
106.    Water blooms are caused by
    (a)    Bacteria    (b)    Mycoplasma
    (c)    Blue-green algae    (d)    None of these
107.    ‘Potato spindle tuber’ is a disease caused by
    (a)    Prions    (b)    Viroids
    (c)    Mycoplasma    (d)    Virus
108.    Trachoma, a common eye disease is caused by a
    (a)    Bacteria    (b)    Virus
    (c)    Chlamydia    (d)    Rickettsia
109.    Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria with respect to
    (a)    Structure of cell wall
    (b)    Structure of cell membrane
    (c)    Nucelotide sequence in rRNA
    (d)    All of these
REASON & ASSERTION
In the following questions (01 to 07), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason(R)
1.    If both Assertion & Reason are tue and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark(a)
2.    If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b)
3.    If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)
4.    If both Assertion and Reason are false statement, then mark (d)
110.    A:    Myxamoebae is found in the life cycle of Physarum.
    R:    It is formed after meiotic divisions.
111.    A:    Cellular slime moulds are called communal slime moulds.
    R:    They show division of labour.
112.    A:    Slime moulds are called ‘Protistan fungi’.
    R:    They resemble both a tissue known as plectenchyma.

113.    A:    Fungal hyphae form a tissue known as plectenchyma.
    R:    In pseudoparenchyma, the hypha are lossely held together.
114.    A:    Dikaryophase occurs before plasmogamy and karyogamy.
    R:    Dikaryons contain two nuclei.
115.    A:    Fungal cellulse or chitin is a polysaccharide.
    R:    It is made up of acetyl glucosamine.
116.    A:    Soredia are formed by the fungal partner.
    R:    Soredia are formed on the upper surface of the thallus.
COMPETITIVE EXAM QUESTIONS
117.    Critera employed for present day classification of organisms are based on
    (a)    Resemblances in external features
    (b)    Anatomical and physiological traits
    (c)    Ecological adaptations
    (d)    Breeding habits            (cbse 1991)
118.    Which one of the following enzymes is present in the bacteriophage ?
    (a)    Protease
    (b)    Lysozyme
    (c)    Succinic dehydrogenase
    (d)    Urease            (PMT-MP 1996)
119.    Which of the following is a viral disease ?
    (a)    Red rot of sugarcane
    (b)    Leaf roll of potato
    (c)    Wilt of cabbage
    (d)    Damping off disease            (PMT-MP 1991)
120.    Tailed bacteriophages are
    (a)    Motile on surface of plant leaves
     (b)    Motile on surface of bacteria
    (c)    Non-motile
    (d)    Actively motile in water        (cbse 1995)
121.    RNA particles causing symptoms like that of virus diseases are known as            (cPMT-UP 1997)
    (a)    Vira    (b)    Viroid
    (c)    Mycoplasma    (d)    Virion
122.    Which one of the following statement is correct ?
    (cbse 1998)
    (a)    Viruses are obligate parasites   
    (b)    All fungi are pathogenic
    (c)    All algae are eukaryotic
    (d)    Bacteria are always harmful to mankind
123.    Influenza virus contains            (CPMT 1993)
    (a)    RNA
    (b)    DNA   
    (c)    Both DNA and RNA
    (d)    None of these
124.    VAM are a kind of           (PMT-Raj. 1994)
    (a)    Saprophytic bacteria
    (b)    Saprophytic fungi
    (c)    Symbiotic fungi
    (d)    Symbiotic bacteria
125.    All fungi differ from algae in   
    (a)    Lacking motile ciliated gametes
    (b)    Lacking unicellular forms
    (c)    Being coenocytic
    (d)    Lacking chlorophyll and in having cell wall which is chitinished        (Cpmt-UP 1998)
126.    One of the following are ‘amphibians of plant kingdom’       (Manipal PMT 2000)
    (a)    Thallophytes    (b)    Bryophytes
    (c)    Angiosperms    (d)    Gymnosperms
127.    One of the following is true   (Manipal PMT 2000)
    (a)    Blue green algae is a kind of green algae
    (b)    Chilgoza is edible friut of Pinus gerardiana
    (c)    Bryophytes are with covered seed
    (d)    All gymnosperms show double fertilization
128.    Which of the following name is correctly written?
    (a)    Ficus Bengalensis
    (b)    Apisindica
    (c)    Trypanosoma gambiense
    (d)    Mangifera indica    (Manipal PMT 2001)
129.    Organisms found in extremes temperatures are
    (a)    Cyanobacteria    (b)    Archaebacteria
    (c)    Fungi    (d)    Eubacteria
(DPMT 2001)
130.    Fungi differ from other kingdoms in being
    (a)    Unicellular decomposers
    (b)    Unicellular consumers
    (c)    Multicellular decomposers
    (d)    Multicellular consumers            (DPMT 2001)
131.    Antibiotic flavicin is obtained from
    (a)    Aspergillus fumigatus
    (b)    A. elavatus
    (c)    Streptomyces griseus   
    (d)    S. fradiae            (PMT-MP 1999)
132.    Aflotoxins are secreted by         (BVP Pune 2003)
    (a)    Bacteria    (b)    Viruses
    (c)    Fungi    (d)    Algae
133.    Cleviceps purpurea is causal organism of 
    (a)    Powdery mildew of pea        (CBSE 1994)
    (b)    Smut of barley
    (c)    Rust of wheat   
    (d)    Ergotism of rye
134.    viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis, are called        (CBSePMt 2004)
    (a)    Lysogenic   
    (b)    Lysozymes
    (c)    Lipolytic
    (d)    Lytic
135.    Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses ?
    (a)    Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
    (b)    DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
    (c)    Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
    (d)    The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA      (CBSe PMt 2004)
136.    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?      (CBSe PMt 2004)
    (a)    Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
    (b)    Streptomyces – Antibiotic
    (c)    Serratia  – Drug addiction
    (d)    Spirulina – Single cell protein
137.    A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla is (CBSePMt 2004)
    (a)    Anabaena    (b)    Tolypothrix
    (c)    Chlorella    (d)    Nostoc
138.    Thermococcus, Methanococcus, and Methanobacterium exemplify:
                                       (CBSe PMt 2008)
    (a)    Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
    (b)    Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
    (c)    Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
    (d)    Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
139.    In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea ?            (CBSe PMt 2008)
    (a)    Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
    (b)    Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
    (c)    Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
    (d)    Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
140.    If the person shows the production of interferons in his body, chances are that he is suffering from
    (a)    anthrax    (b)    malaria
    (c)    measles    (d)    tetanus   
                    (KCET 2009)
141.    HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in
    (a)    DNA instead of RNA
    (b)    DNA
    (c)    RNA instead of DNA
    (d)    protein coat            (DPMT 2009)
142.    Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
    (a)    a nematode    (b)    a virus
    (c)    a bacterium    (d)    a viroid
                    (DPMT 2009)
143.    Which one of the following are intracellular obligate parasites?            (DPMT 2009)
    (a)    Bacteria    (b)    Viruses
    (c)    Slime moulds    (d)    Blue-green algae
144.    Which of the following statements is false?
    (a)    TMV has double-stranded RNA molecule
    (b)    Most plant viruses are RNA viruses
    (c)    The bacteriophage has a double-stranded DNA molecule
    (d)    Most animal viruses are DNA viruses
                    (DMP 2009)
145.    The genetic material of rabies virus is
    (a)    double stranded RNA   
    (b)    single stranded RNA
    (c)    double stranded DNA
    (d)    ssDNA.
146.    Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
    (a)    Dysentery, Common cold
    (b)    Typhoid, Tuberculosis
    (c)    Ringworm, AIDS
    (d)    Common cold, AIDS        (AIPMT 2009)
147.    A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it is probably able to form
    (a)    a thick peptidoglycan wall
    (b)    endospores
    (c)    endotoxins
    (d)    endogenous buds            (KCET 2009)



148.    The vector for plague is        (GGSIPU 2009)
    (a)    Anopheles   
    (b)    Aedes
    (c)    Xenopsylla   
    (d)    Culex
148.    Lung tuberculosis is caused by
    (a)    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    (b)    Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    (c)    Streptococcus pneumoniae
    (d)    Escherichia coli            (DPMT 2009)
149.    An example for symbiotic bacteria is
    (a)    Erwinia amylovora        (DPMT 2009)
    (b)    Rhizobium leguminosarum
    (c)    Xanthomonas campestris
    (d)    Agrobacterium tumefaciens
150.    Nonpathogenic bacteria found in our vermiform appendix is            (AFMC 2009)
    (a)    Entamoeba histolytica
    (b)    Shigella
    (c)    Esherichia coli   
    (d)    Ascaris
151.    The athlete’s foot disease in humans is caused due to            (AMU 2009)
    (a)    bacteria   
    (b)    fungi
    (c)    virus
    (d)    none of the above
152.    Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?          (AIPMT 2009)
    (a)    Loose smut of wheat – Ustilago nuda
    (b)    Root-knot of vegetables – Meloidogyne sp
    (c)    Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani
    (d)    Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis
153.    Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?   (AIPMT 2009)
    (a)    Ustilago    (b)    Wheat
    (c)    Funaria    (d)    polytriichum
154.Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means
    (a)    sporangiospore, oospore and ascospore
    (b)    zoospore, oospore and ascospore
    (c)    sporangiospore, ascospore and basidiospore
    (d)    oospore, ascospore, basidiospore
155.    Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH2) habitats belong to the two groups:     (CBSE-Pre 2010)
    (a)    Protists and mosses
    (b)    Liverworts and yeasts
    (c)    Eubacteria and archaea
    (d)    Cyanobacteria and diatoms
156.    Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms :
(CBSE 2010)
    (a)    Methanogens are Archaebacteria produce
    methane in marshy areas
    (b)    Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga  
    which fixes atmospheric nitrogen
    (c)    Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
    synthesize cellulose from glucose
    (d)Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen
    The correct statements are :
    (a)(b), (c), (d)
    (b)(a), (b), (d)
    (c)(b), (c)
    (d)(a),(b),(c)
157.    Given  below  is  the   diagram  of bacteriophage. In which one of the option all the four parts A, B, C and D are correct ?

    Options :

158.    Typhoid fever is caused by a species of :
(DPMT 2010)
    (a)    Streptococcus    (b)    Staphylococcus
    (c)    Salmonella     (d)    Mycobacterium
159.    HIV is a member of a group of viruses called
(DPMT 2010)
    (a)    Bacteriophages    (b)    Geminiviruses
    (c)    Lysogenic viruses    (d)    Retroviruses
160.    The beginning of understanding genetic transformation in bacteria was made by :   
(DPMT 2010)
    (a)    Frederick Griffith
    (b)    Hershey and Chase
    (c)    Watson and Crick
    (d)    T.H. Morgan

LEVEL-I
    1.(c)    2.(a)    3.(d)    4.(d)    5.(a)
    6.(d)    7.(b)    8.(d)    9.(d)    10.(b)
    11.(b)    12.(c)    13.(b)    14.(b)    15.(c)
    16.(d)    17.(b)    18.(b)    19.(a)    20.(b)
    21.(a)    22.(c)    23.(b)    24.(a)    25.(b)
    26.(a)    27.(d)    28.(a)    29.(b)    30.(b)
    31.(d)    32.(a)    33.(b)    34.(c)    35.(a)
    36.(c)    37.(b)    38.(c)    39.(d)    40.(a)
    41.(c)    42.(c)    43.(b)    44.(d)    45.(a)
LEVEL-II
    46.(d)    47.(d)    48.(d)    49.(b)    50.(d)
    51.(c)    52.(a)    53.(b)    54.(d)    55.(a)
    56.(d)    57.(a)    58.(c)    59.(a)    60.(b)
    61.(a)    62.(c)    63.(c)    64.(a)    65.(b)
    66.(a)    67.(a)    68.(b)    69.(a)    70.(b)
    71.(d)    72.(a)    73.(c)    74.(b)    75.(b)
    76.(c)    77.(a)    78.(d)    79.(b)    80.(d)
    81.(b)    82.(a)    83.(b)    84.(c)    85(b)
    86.(b)    87.(b)    88.(c)    89.(c)    90.(b)
    91.(d)    92.(a)    93.(a)    94.(a)    95.(d)
    96.(a)    97.(c)    98.(b)    99.(a)    100.(a)
    101.(d)    102.(a)    103.(b)    104.(b)    105.(b)
    106.(c)    107.(b)    108.(c)    109.(d)
    Reason & Assertion
    110.(b)    111.(b)    112.(a)    113.(c)    114.(d)
    115.(a)    116.(d)
Competitive Examinations
    117.(b)    118.(b)    119.(b)    120.(c)    121.(b)
    122.(a)    123(a)    124.(c)    125.(d)    126.(b)
    127.(b)    128(d)    129.(b)    130.(c)    131.(a)
    132.(c)    133.(d)    134.(d)    135.(b)    136.(c)
    137.(a)    138.(b)    139.(c)    140.(c)    141.(c)
    142.(d)    143.(b)    144.(a)    145.(b)    146.(d)
    147.(b)    148.(c)    149.(b)    150.(b)    151.(a)              152.(c)    153.(a)    154.(d)    155.(c)    156.(b)             157.(a)    158.(c)    159.(d)    160.(a)