Thursday, April 1, 2010




1)Vocalis Muscle is a part of



c)Transverse arytenoid

d)Posterior cricoarytenoid

2)Sumatriptan is contraindicated in



c)Coronary artery disease

d)peripheral vascular disease

3)Non granular fungal disease is





4)All following are true of seminiferous tubules except

a)Sertoli cells

b)Leydig cells



5)Sub-poena is a




d)first info report

6)Refsum disease is due to defect in enzyme

a)Phytanic acid oxidase




7)Skin supplied over the angle of mandible and parotid area is by

a)Greater auricular

b)posterior auricular



8)Adductor pollicis is supplied by

a)Superficial branch of ulnar nerve

b)deep branch of ulnar nerve

c)radial nerve d)median nerve

9)Ring Scotoma is seen in

a)Retinitis Pigmentosa




10) In a patient, highest visual morbidity is seen in

a)Nuclear cataract

b)Intumescent cataract

c)Posterior subcapsular


11)Klumpke paralysis is





12)For the treatment of a patient with after cataract which laser is used





13)Most malignant breast tumor of the following is

a)inflammatory carcinoma

b)Mucinous carcinoma

c)Colloid carcinoma

d)Paget's` disease of breast.

14)Full thickness graft means:

a)Only epidermis

b)epidermis and superficial dermis

c)epidermis + whole dermis

d)epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue

15)A 50yr old woman weighing 50kg and having almost complete burns comes to burns ward. According to Parklands formula ,the amt. of fluid for resuscitation in 24hrs.





16)Investigation of choice for DVT is




c)radioisotope scan

17)After closed reduction of supracondylar fracture of humerus, flexion greater than 90 degree causes disappearance of radial pulse. The next line of management is


b)Exploration for arterial rupture

c)Keep elbow at 90 in cast

d)Open reduction & internal fixation.

18)Open reduction & fixation does all except



c)better function

d)Better alignment

19) In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF

a)Kuntshner nail

b)Austin Moore pine

c)K. wire

d)Smith Peterson nail

20)Soap Bubble appearance is seen

a)Giant cell tumor




21)Snow storm appearance on CXR is seen in





22)Housemaid Knee is inflammation of

a)prepatellar bursa

b)Suprapatellar bursa

c)Infrapatellar bursa

d)anserine bursa

23) Height increase in adolescent/year is

a)8.5 cm




24)Patient with genotype XO will have following phenotype except

a)Tall stature

b)Broad Chest

c)Webbed neck


25)treatment of carcinoma thyroid using radioactive iodine is

a) I131

b) I125

c) I133

26) solitary nodule of thyroid in a male aged 40yr from a non-endemic area would most likely have


b)papillary ca Thyroid

c)follicular ca


27)In assessment of gestational age of a neonate the following all seen except

a)Breast bud



d)scrotal skin

28)On USG, the appendix is seen, it is most likely due to

a)Retrocecal appendix

b)Acute appendicitis

d)preileal appendix

29)Vesicular lesion is seen in

a)Primary syphilis

b)secondary syphilis

c)tertiary syphilis

d)congenital syphilis

30)In villous adenoma of rectum which of the following is seen

a) Hypokalemia


c)hypochloremic alkalosis


31)The best view on X-ray to view pituitary fossa is

a)lateral skull X-ray

b)Towne's view

c)schuller's view


32)Supratendinitis calcification is due to deposition of

a)Ca2+ pyrophosphate

b) Ca2+ hydroxyapatite

c)Ca2+ oxalate


33) all the following are beta-blockers except



c) celiprolol


34)Unpleasant dreams and hallucinations occur after which anesthesia





35)Longest acting antihistamine is





36) The most common carcinoma of sinuses is

a) squamous cell carcinoma

b) adeno carcinoma

c) transitional cell carcinoma


38) All are specific to TB except

a) Epituberculosis

b) Phlycten

c) Erythema nodosum

d) lupus vulgaris

39) The following macrolides are used for toxoplasmosis except

a) Erythromycin

b) clarithromycin

c) Azithromycin

d) spiramycin

40) Following are third generation cephalosporins except

a) cefuroxime

b) ceftriaxone

c) ceftazidime

d) cefotaxime

41) The mechanism of action of cephalosporin is

a) interferes with cell wall synthesis

b) inhibition of DNA gyrase



42) Evidence of ovulation has occurred is all except

a) 10 mm graffian follicles on USG**

b) progesterone > 5ng/ml

c) corpus luteum

d) Biphasic increase in temperature

43) Objective evidence of hearing loss is all except

a) pure tone audiometry


c) otoacoustic emission


44) Vestibular anus is

a) imperforate anus

b) high anorectal

c) low anorectal

d) mid anorectal

45) Brawny swelling below the angle of mandible likely diagnosis is

a) Vincent's angina

b) Ludwig's angina

c) ranula

d) hydrocele of neck

46) Apraxia is

a) normal sensory system, normal motor system, abnormal cerebellar system

b) normal sensory system, abnormal motor system, normal cerebellar system

c) abnormal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system

d) normal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system

47) Alexythymia is

a) inability to express ones own emotion




48) Akathesia is


b) a state motor or verbal restlessness

c) cogwheel rigidity


49)infantile autism is seen in

a) dysthymic personality

b) personality disorder

b) paranoid personality

d) behavioral disorder

50) In pulmonary embolism, the receptor involving causing reflex hyperventilation is

a) J-receptor

b) slow adapting receptor

c) fast adapting receptor

d) Irritant receptors

51) Cazt** channel defect is seen in

a) hypokalemic periodic paralysis

b) hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

c) paramyotonia congenita


52) Which is not an aldolase

a) glucose

b) Mannose

c) fructose

d) starch

53) Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is


b) Glycine

c) glutamate

d) Aspartate

54) Enlarged adenoid causes the following complications except


b) maxillary sinusitis



55) In an elderly hypertension patient with arteriosclerosis renin level in blood will be

a) high

b) low

c) normal

d) not related to HT

56) A patient comes with recurrent abdominal pain, and urinary examination reveals Ehrlich aldehyde test (+) for urobilonogens. The diagnosis is

a) porphyria

b) renal calculi

c) cholelithiasis


57) In urticaria pigmentosa, the cell most commonly seen in skin on microscopy is

a) Mast cell

b) Langerhan's cell

c) Langhan's cell


58)lagopathalmos is seen in

a) leprosy

b) syphilis

c) peripheral neuritis

d) HZV infection

59) Topical steroids is used in

a) Interstitial keratitis

b) bacterial keratitis

c) pendrotic

d) herpetic

60) An elderly male with dry skin and fissuring scaly skin is likely to have

a) nummular eczema

b) venous eczema

c) asteatotic eczema


61) In myasthenia gravis, true is

a) antibody is present against nicotinic receptor

b) decreased Acetylcholine release

c) decreased no of receptors

d) end organ resistance

62) Insulin sensitivity increases on following treat except

a) metformin

b) acarbose

c) exercise

d) fasting

63) All the following are anticonvulsants except

a) lamotrigine

b) methyl phenytoline

c) vigabatrin

d) topiramate

64) Side effect of valvular heart disease is seen with

a) fenfluramine

b) methylphenidate

c) amphetamine


65) Side effect of acute pancreatitis is due to following anti HIV drugs

a) lamivudine

b) zidovudine

c) didanosine


66) "milk spots" on the omentum consists of

a) macrophage

b) neutrophils

c) lymphocyte


67) longest acting muscle relaxant is

a) pancuronium

b) mivacurium

c) vecuronium


68)Genital prolapse in a female can be due to all except

a) Ascites

b)complete perineal tear

c) chronic cough


69) Tubal patency test is done by which test?

a) sion test

b) frei's test

c) bonney's test

d) three swab test

70) cells are most susceptible to radiation in which phase

a) M phase

b) G2 phase

c) G1 phase

d) S phase

Ans. Ref:

71) end product of ?- hydroxylation is

a) Acetyl CoA + propionyl CoA

b) Acetyl CoA + succinyl CoA

c) Acetyl CoA +

d) Acetyl CoA + malonyl CoA

72) Morrison pouch is

a) subphrenic space

b) posterior to lateral lobe of liver

c) lesser sac

73) hemoptysis in mitral stenosis is due to

a) Pulmonary arterial hypertension

b) Pulmonary arterial hypertension + left atrial hypertension

c) Left ventricular pressure


74) In massive pericardial effusion all are seen except a) on fluoroscopy less prominent vascular marking

b) CT ratio >0.5

c) CP angles acute

d) Plethoric pulmonary fields

75) single plate coated with ammonium***** is present in all except

a) X-ray

b) MMR

c) CT scan

d) USG film

76)Best view on x-ray to view bilateral auditory oscines /Eustachian tubes? is

a) occipito frontal

b) fronto occipital

c) submento vertical


77) best view for pituitary fossa on x-ray is

a) lateral skull x-ray


c) sella view


78) Gram negative antigen is injected in a rabbit after 2 weeks****question not complete****

a) schwartzmann reaction- ans

b) Schultz-dale phenomenon

c) P-K-reaction


79) The most common cause of spasm of psoas in childhood is

a) trauma

b) tuberculosis psoas

c) acute appendicitis

d) pyogenic psoas abscess

80) which leucotriene is the adhesion factor for the neutrophil on the cell surface to attach endothelium

a) B4

b) C4


d) E4

81) In the following conditions, bone matrix is reduced except

a) osteoporosis

b) osteomalacia

c) hyperparathyroidism

d) osteopetrosis

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82) which one is FAD dependent reaction

a) succinyl CoA fumarate


c) d)

83) which of the following is formed by the intestinal mucosal cells on absorption of dietary lipids

a) chylomicrons


c) HDL

d) LDL

84) high risk factor for coronary artery diseases are all except

a) low homocysteine level

b) cholesterol > 250 mg



85) In osteomalacia, all the following seen except

a) looser zones

b) high alkaline phosphate levels



86) In a patient with solitary nodule of thyroid, investigation of choice is


b) USG

c) CT

d) Radioisotope scan

87) how many double bonds are present in arachidonic acid?

a) One

b) two

c) Three

d) Four

88) In elective tracheostomy, incision is taken on

a) cricothyroid membrane

b) C1 & C2

c) c2 & c4


89) Autoinduction of biotransformation and action as a hormone is seen in

a) carbamazepine

b) cimetidine

c) corticosteroid.

90) G-6-P-D inheritance is

a) X-linked - recessive

b) autosomal dominant

c) autosomal recessive

d) x linked dominant

91) oral hairy leucoplakia & whitish plaque on the tongue and palate seen gives clue to most likely diagnosis of

a) HIV infection

b) HTLV - 1

c) infectious mononucleosis


92) most common organism causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is

a) staphylococcus


c) salmonella

d) streptococcus

93) symblepharon is caused by

a) diphtheria

b) gonococci

c) chlamydia

d) opthalmia neonatorum

94) jargon aphasia is seen in

a) wenicke's

b) broca's aphasia

c) conduction aphasia

95) In koraskoff psychosis seen is

a) global deterioration intelligence

b) impaired recall & new ability to learn



96) multiple calcification in the brain or cystic calcification in the brain or comma shaped calcification seen in

a) CMV

b) neurocysticercosis

c) tuberous sclerosis

d) toxoplasmosis

97)On CT scan, all are seen as hypodense area except

a) cerebral hemorrhage

b) glioblastoma

c) cerebral edema

d) cerebral infarct

98) hypertensive bleed mostly occurs in


b) pons

c) cortex

d) thalamus

99) back-wash ileitis is seen in

a) crohn's diseases

b) ulcerative colitis



100) leukemoid reaction type 2 in leprosy is due to

a) type I hypersensitivity

b) Type II hypersensitivity

c)type III hypersensitivity

d) type IV hypersensitivity

101) systematic desensitization as form of therapy is done in

a) phobia

b) obsessive compulsive disorder



102) morbid jealousy is seen in

a) alcoholism

b) persons who are isolated from society



103) respiratory alkalosis is seen in

a) duodenal obstruction

b) early salicylism

c) diarrhea


104) dopamine is highest in


b) cerebellum

c) caudate


105) IL-1 & TNF ? causes

a) increasing capillary permeability

c) acute phase reactants

b) chemotaxis

d) activate endothelium

106) thimble pitting nails are seen in

a) psoriasis

b) tinea versicolor

c)lichen planus


107) Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except

a) lepromatous leprosy

b) borderline borderline

c) tuberculoid

d) neuritic

108) which of the following is type IV hyper sensitivity




d) contact dermatitis

109) Pressure necrosis which causes venous flow to stop during endotracheal intubation occurs at

a) 20 - 30 mm Hg

b) 15 - 20 mm Hg

c) 30-40 mm Hg

d) 16 -15 mm Hg

110) diagnosis of mucopolysacharridoses can be done by examination of

a) cornea

b) skin

c) bone

d) face

111) cadaveric position of vocal cords occurs in

a) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

b) recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy + superior laryngeal nerve palsy



112) most common site of pelvic abscess is in

a) ishiorectal fossa

b) perianal



113) most important sensory organ in the ampulla is

a) organ of corti

b) macula


d) crista

114) carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to

a)mean blood pressure

b) diastolic blood pressure

c) systolic blood pressure

d) Pulse pressure

115) the following are derived from endoderm except

a) liver

b) kidney

c) pancreas

d)urinary bladder

116)human placenta is

a) hemochorial

b) endothen - esdothelima

c) chorio - endothelial


117)In malaria acquired by transfusion, the infective form is

a) sporozoites

b) shistozoites

c) gametocytes

d) merozoites

118) inhibition of prolactin is caused by

a) dopamine

b) dobutamine



119) In after coming, head best forceps used for delivery is

a) piper's forceps

b) kielland's forceps

c) wrigley' forceps


120) longest diameter of the skull is

a) suboccipital bregmatic

b) occipital frontal

c) bitemporal

d) biparietal

121)bishop score is used to evaluate

a) cervix status

b) uterine contraction

c) fetal well being


122) the management of eclampsia includes all except

a) control of convulsion

b) prolongation of pregnancy

c) control of BP

d) delivery of fetus

123) The most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in developing countries is

a) pressure necrosis of urethra during obstructed labor

b) forceps delivery



124) shoulder dystocia occurs in delivery of fetus with

a) anencephaly

b) hydrocephalus

c) fetal ascites


125) benign prost hyperplasia occur in the

a) periurethral transitional zone

b) cortex

c) posterior lobe


126) tetany is seen in all except

a) hypoparathyroidism

b) full strength milk given in neonate



127) benign intracranial hypertension is seen in all except

a) hypertvitaminosis A

b) steroid therapy

c) OCP


128) the most common breech presentation in a nulliparous woman is

a) frank breech

b) complete breech

c) footling


129) In supra condylar fracture, the x-ray view of which helps in the next line of management

a) baumman's angle

b) cobb's angle

c) cowen's angle

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130) calculate the pearl index if 6 pregnancy occurs in 1200 females practicing contraception for 1 year

a) 6

b) 12

c) 18

d) 24

131) In minilap procedure, the most common method successfully used is

a) uchida

b) pomeroy's



132) deep transverse arrest occurs in

a) android

b) anthropoid

c) gynecoid

d) flat pelvis

133) false positive rinne's test occur in

a) unilateral conductive deafness

b) unilateral sensory neural deafness

c) bilateral conductive deafness

d) bilateral sensory neural deafness

134) A nulliparous female aged 30 years develops IInd degree UV prolapse. The operative procedure done is

a) cervicopexy



135) following are true of hemorrhoids except

a) they are arteriolar dilatations

b) they are common causes of painless bleeding

c) they cannot be per rectally palpated

136) waves on EEG during NREM period of sleep is

a) alpha

b) beta

c) delta

d) theta

137) following is true of hormone leptin except

a) it is found in increased levels in obese

b) it's site of action is hypothalmus

c) it is produced by adipose all

d) it increases appetite.

138) function of brown fat is

a) glycogenosis

b) gluconeogenesis


d) thermogenesis

139) The most common cause for stridor in the early day of life is

a) laryngomalacia

b)esophago- tracheal fistula

c) laryngeal stenosis


140) commonest sources of lead to cause increased blood level is from

a) air

b) lead paints

c) water


141) The incisura of arterial pulse corresponds with


b) S2

c) opening snap

4) S3

142) the one organism which is responsible for coronary artery disease

a) chlamydia

b) klebsiella

c) E coli

d) mycoplasma

143) to build a genome library using digested chromosome into fragments, the enzyme used is

a) DNA polymerase

b) RNA restriction endonuclease


144) all the following are suggestive of urethral injury except

a) blood at meatus

b) haematoma of scrotum

c) high prostate on PR

d) blood in rectum

145) to assess the refraction state of eye, the investigation done is

a) USG - Bscan

b) retinoscopy

c) binoculoscopy

d) opthalmoscopy

146) which of the following has the worst prognosis

a) rolandic epilepsy

b) versive epilepsy

c) absence epilepsy


Ans. Ref:

147) which of the following has worst prognoses in carcinoma lung

a) squamous cell carcinoma

b) large cell carcinoma

c) small cell carcinoma


148) Herbert's pit is seen in

a) vernal conjunctivitis

b) atopic conjunctivitis

c) gonococcal conjunctivitis

d)chlamydial conjunctivitis

149) the amount of rads required for treatment of oropharyngeal carcinoma is

a) 3000 - 4000 rads

b) 4000- 5000 rads

c) 5000 - 6000

d) 6000 - 7000

150) prolonged ST segment with T wave seen in

a) hypokalemia

b) hyperkalemia

c) hypomagnesemia

d) hypocalcemia

151) In a meconium aspirated baby following are investigations. pO2=50, pCO2=60 & blood pH=7.1. the next line of management of giving I V infusion to correct this condition is

a) NAHCO3 solution

b) ringer lactate


d) endotracheal intubation & IPPV

152) which of the following hormones increase during sleep

a) insulin


c) GH

d) melatonin

153) bromocriptine is used to suppress prolactin

a) acts as agonist to dopamine receptors




154) in chronic folliculitis the treatment of choice is



c) cloxacillin

d) vancomycin

Ans. Ref:

155) on X-ray calcification of breast is seen. Likely cause is

a) chronic breast abscess

b) tuberculosis of breast

c) periductal carcinoma


156) epidermolysis bullosa is due to

a) autoimmune disease

b) atopic disease

c) infective agent

d) genetic fragility of skin

157) A child suffering from marasmus was given high protein diet. The metabolic change likely is

a) hyperargininemia

b) hyperammonemia

c) hyperlysinemia

d) hypernatremia.

158) the ORS fluid used for a marasmic child lacks in (racemol)

a) amino acids

b) sodium

c) copper

d) magnesium

159) which of the following cell has both T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte function

a) plasma cell

b) T- lymphoblast cell

c)B-lymphoblast cell

d) NK cell

160) salmonella osteomyelitis occurs in

a) sickle cell d

b) beta thalassemia

c) sideroblastic anemia


161) following are louse borne disease

a) endemic typhus

b) KFD

c) lyme's disease


162) the treatment of choice in angiofibroma is a 12 year old boy is

a) radio treatment

b) chemo treatment

c) embolisation of inferior palatine artery

d) surgery

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163) A young women, 30 yrs old complains of pain in the left knee joint which increases after exercise since 4 months. An x-ray shows eccentric bone cyst. The likely diagnosis is

a) aneurysmal bone cyst

b) unicameral bone cyst



164) The term family size in demographic parlance means

a) the total number of children a women has borne at a point of time

b) the total number of children of couples

c) the total number of children by women borne in a female between 15- 45 yrs

Ans. Ref:

165) the approximate magnitude of completed family size from demographic point view is given by

a) TFR

b) GFR


166) the following should be done for prophylaxis of rabies in a 1 year old child except

a) wash the wound with soap & water

b) give HDCV in the buttock

c) HDCV should not be given to HIV pt


167) all the following are examples of health promotion except

a) stop smoking

b) regular exercise

c) chemoprophylaxis

168) one of the following helps deliver baby in a community

a) health assistant female

b) anganwadi worker

c) health supervisor

d) village health guide

169) Least recurrence of peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in

a) selective vagotomy

b) TV + GJ

c) Pure gastroenterostomy

d) TV+ antrectomy

170) CABG has successful outcome and prognosis if done in

a) double vessel obstruction

b) left coronary artery obstruction without left ventricular dysfunction

c) single vessel obstruction

171) anteversion of uterus is due to following ligament

a) uterosacral ligament

b) mackenrod's ligament



172) osteochondroma is a disease of


b) diaphysis

c) epiphysis

d) periosteum

173) the characteristic symptom of dysmenorrhea , menorrhagia, recurrent abdominal pain and infertility is suggestive of

a) endometriosis

b) ectopic

c) endometritis


174) testicular seminoma, secretes

a) ? -FP

b) CEA

c) B-HCG


175) the concentration of HbA1c in blood is

a) 4-6%

b) 6-8%

c) 8-9%


176) which of the following is contraindicated in early pregnancy

a) heparin

b) phenytoin

c) chlor****

d) penicillin

177) action potential is transmitted to myofibrils via

a) terminal cisterns

b) T- Tubules

c) longitudinal

d) sarcomere

178) humidification of O2 is required in

a) nasopharyngeal intubation

b) nasal prong

c) nasal catheter

d) face mask

179) meconium plug syndrome occurs in

a) meconium ileus

b) hirschsprung's disease

c) ileo-colic pouch


180) the cause of endemic ascites is


b) Sanguinarine

c) Pyrozzilodine alkaloids


181) earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency is

a) conjunctival xerosis

b) corneal xerosis

c) bitot's spot


182) Pinta is caused by

a) T pertenue

b) T pallidum

c) T carateum

d) Borrelia burgdorferi.

183) all the following cause priapism except

a) trauma

b) Beta thalassemia

c) sickle cell disease

d) leriche syndrome

184) iridectomy is done in which type of glaucoma is


c) angle closure


d) open glaucoma

185) yellow fever is not present in India because of all except

a) the virus is absent

b) the vector mosquito culex vishnui

c) atmospheric condition is suitable

186) phage typing is useful in classification of all except

a) staphylococcus

b) streptococcus

c) cholera

d) salmonella

187)in a patient with strikingly abnormal behavior , the most likely diagnosis is

a) paranoid schizophrenia

b) catatonic schizophrenia

c) hebephrenic schizophrenia


188)the revised national TB program uses one of the following for diagnosis of TB

a) sputum AFB

b) CXR

c) clinical examination

d) PCR

189) following are true of rubella except

a) IP: 14-21days

b) rosy red spots on palate

c) encephalitis

190) Acrodynia occurs in

a) mercury poisoning

b) arsenic poisoning

c) lead poisoning


191) hydrotherapy is done in

a) impotence

b) infertility

c) febrile convulsion


192) hemodialysis is useful in all except

a) salicylate poisoning

b) methyl alcohol poisoning

c) digitalis

d) barbiturate

193) proliferation of mesangial cell & perimesangial on microscopy is seen in

a) lg A nephropathy

b) lipoid nephrosis

c) membranoproliferative disease

d) membranous glomerulonephritis

194) point prevalence of a chronic disease is studied best by

a) case control study

b) cross sectional study

c) historical cohort

d) cohort

195) reversible cataract is seen in which of following

a) galactosemia

b) hypoparathyroidism

c) diabetes mellitus


196) De quervain's thyroiditis is due to all except

a) it is due to virus

b) antibodies against follicular cells

c) it is self limited granulomatous thyroiditis

197)partial prothromboplastin time is prolonged in all except

a) protein C deficiency

b) protein S deficiency

c) antithrombin III deficiency

d) factor V deficiency

198) which of the following has least t1/2

a) norepinephrine

b) adrenaline

c) renin


199) the treatment of primary ovarian failure is

a) FSH

b) GnRH


d)estrogen progesterone

200)LDL cholesterol in blood recommended to prevent coronary artery disease is





Tips and Tricks to Crack PMT 2010

The All India Pre Medical Test (AIPMT) is a yearly college entrance examination in India. The exam is conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), Delhi for admission to MBBS and BDS courses in several medical colleges around the country.

AIPMT will have two Objectives round this year. Here we are placing few tips and tricks which will help you in cracking AIPMT 2010.

Important chapters

Here is the list of Most Important chapters that you must learn by heart!


Heat and thermodynamics (graphical), SHM and Waves, Kirchhoff’s Laws, Magnetic effect & Electromagnetic induction. It is always preferable to go for modern physics as lots of questions are asked from this unit. Concept of Projectile, Impulse, Momentum & centre of Mass are also a few important chapters in Mechanics.


* Organic Chemistry – General organic chemistry, biochemistry.
* Physical Chemistry – Chemical & ionic equilibrium, kinetics energetic, radio, nuclear and surface chemistry.
* Inorganic Chemistry – Analytical chemistry, redox, stochiometry, periodic properties, chemical bonding and organo metallic compounds.


* Cell Biology – Structure, organization, function of reproduction of cells, cellular enzymes.
* Plant and Animal Physiology – Plant water relations, photosynthesis, plant nutrition, respiration, nutrition, circulation, respiration & osmo-regulation in animals, nervous coordination and integration in animals, chemical co- ordination.
* Economic Zoology – Domestication and improvement of animals.
* These biology chapters help you solve tricky and simple questions: Systematic, genetics, morphology of flowering plants, internal structure of angiosperm in plants, animal tissues, and reproduction of flowering plants, ecosystem, biodiversity, human diseases and technology for medical application, bio-energy and growth of human population.

Time management

1. Align your biological clock by practicing mock tests within the stimulated time for PMT. Remember: practice makes perfect!

2. While answering your exam, go for the direct questions i.e. the questions, which are directly based on the topic, first.

3. Tackle all questions you are sure of answering, correctly. Guessing will not help due to negative marking. For each incorrect response, one third of the total marks allotted to the question will be deducted.

However, no deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated in the answer sheet. More than one answer indicated against a question will be deemed as incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

What to study?

This is one of the most frequently asked question , which book should we read for preparing for PMT Entrance test??

Here I am placing a list of few books which will be very help full in cracking AIPMT 2010.


* Firstly, the most imp., stick to NCERT! Believe me people it is a must before considering any other book…
* Secondly, once you have gone through the NCERT. The book you must read is Truemans Elementary Biology!!! A great book for cracking any PMT exam, AIPMT, UPMT, AIIMS.
* Thirdly, after reading these books your basics must have been all-clear. Now what you need is to test yourself…so take any objective question bank and test yourself..
* And Lastly, take previous year question papers and go through them! They are must! The following book provides you with 22 year question papers of AIPMT and that also chapter wise!


* Firstly, NCERT
* Secondly, Dinesh Subjective Physics and chemisrty
* Thirdly – Any objective question bank for both physic and chemistry. Though I prefer Dinesh publications only..
* Finally, Previous year question papers [MUST]